Lee Lansford
Elite Member
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Illinois
...Yes, the seller is crediting the buyer $15,000 for reoccuring/non-reoccuring closing costs...
My logic was always that the concession (closing costs paid by seller) is a "discount" on the property that had to be considered if the comparables did not have a similar discount. So, yes, I was subtracting the amount of the S/P closing cost, on the grid, for each of the comparables.
1st, IGNORE (when appraising the Subject that is under contract of sale) the contract as far as arriving at the opinion of market value for the Subject property. The Subject's "seller's concessions" are totally irrelevant as to the market value of the Subject property. With the way that you are now approaching the problem, if the seller elected to give the buyer a concession an amount of $$ equal to the market value of the property, your opinion of MV would be $00...and we know that ain't right!
Suggestion:
I assume that you are communicating the appraisal using the 3/05 Fannie form.
LOOK at the definition of Market Value contained therein and read and study the section that gives you information as to exactly how the appraiser is to approach matters of concessions given to the buyer by any party associated with the transaction.
Try it...you'll like it.