Marcia Langley
Senior Member
- Joined
- Aug 26, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Missouri
Marcia-
When I say "outsource the responsibility" that does not mean that a FRI must physically control the entire appraisal process.
For example, if I'm a bank, I can hire a company to do my due diligence work. I've given them the authority to complete it for me. However, the responsibility for appropriate due diligence is mine and mine alone. It doesn't matter if the ones who I authorize to do it for me do it well or poor- however they do it, it is my responsibility. This was a golden opportunity to re-affirm that direct line of responsibility. Who cares who physically manages the process as long as the responsibility for the outcome is defined?
Instead of drawing the hold-accountable line directly to the FRIs, the agreement has set up a third-party vendor system that, in my opinion, shifts much of the due diligence responsibility to the third-party vendor.
The only thing I'm held accountable as the lender under this agreement is to randomly review 10% of the appraisals and report them to a yet-to-be-constituted body.
Again, as a lender, I would welcome this agreement because it requires me to use someone else to control what I should be responsible for controlling. If you take away my ability to control a process, you take away my responsibility for ensuring the process works as intended. Its that simple. :new_smile-l:
Denis,
You know already that I think extremely highly of your opinions. I am simply not reading this part the same way you are.
Our earlier posts were so full of issues, I may have gotten lost from your point.
If you aren't worn out by me :icon_mrgreen: please narrow my attention down to the part of this code that you see as relieving the bank of their responsibility for 100% due diligence in appraisal selection/ordering.
The code expressly says that banks can choose to order appraisals directly from independent fee appraisers. How does that fit with your remark that they would be required to order from third parties?
Or did you mean that from the simple fact that this settlement agreement was not directly with the banks that it imposed a third party requirement upon the bank? If so, what are the chances that since the banks are not required to sell to the GSEs (as if there were any other buyers, LOL) that it does not put a defacto requirement on the banks?
I'm sort of lost.