I have never seen an appraiser apply the breakdown method of depreciation in a report, but even if one went to that length, how do you estimate functional obsolescence suffered by a feature not represented in the market?
Unique features are infrequently valued by methods that are readily repeatable. And the cost is at least something you can estimate. And all for what? To guess at its contribution. Because the lack of sales data means you are either stuck with depreciated cost or something I consider even less reliable - a single paired sale.
Example. Years ago, I appraised a new construction. Nice house. Biggest in a small subdivision. But they sold it to a man with the sort of needy woman who wanted to best everyone else. So when the seller who owned more land in the same subd. built an even bigger house with a pool, she insisted the add on to the now 3- or 4-year-old house AND build a new pool since the competition had a pool. She got her way, and I did the proposed construction. The pool and pool room was $80k. (this was 20 years ago.) Fast forward 10 years and they sell. My former assistant appraised it and came to me saying, "This thing is cheap. Too cheap." But again, Sweetie had been bested by an even bigger house, so they were selling this one to build an even larger one. But analyzing the sale, the house either sold cheap or the pool was invisible. The catch? The owner was a contractor who mainly did commercial work but had built a few houses as well. So, did he have a full boat load in the house? Maybe not. Maybe he forfeited any profit to sell below market and move on just to appease the little woman. I donno. But my assistant had to defend an appraisal well above the sales price. I tried to use it as a comp later and ended up giving it no weight. The thing was simply below market.
Compounding the issue is that pools - which are not that uncommon - are so variable in size and style, they are not the simple "$10,000" adjustment 9 of 10 appraisers around here seem to think. And they are an over-improvement but not so much as to be 100% FO in a $400k house.
This is why we get the big bucks - to express our judgment. Otherwise, we could just plug in the numbers and out comes the value.
And don't get me started on outbuildings. They are either invisible or $5000, $10,000, or if huge, maybe $15,000 and no mention of any functional obsolescence.
I'm just saying that there is no way to tell if that adjustment is reasonable or not without going back to the SCA for verification... "accurate"
Nothing in appraisal is "accurate". But depreciated cost at least supports the value estimate. Putting down nothing does not. PFA does not.
most do not properly complete the cost approach because to do so takes more time than the client (FNMA/Fredie in many cases) are willing to pay one for.
Sadly, that is the issue. And compounding that is so many appraisers do it so infrequently as to be stumped by simple issues - like not having a cost book and doing a PFA estimate. Saw someone post a report with $90 as the RCN...Where can you get a house built for $90 a SF?