Marc Lamb
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Nov 19, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
I just wanted to verify what I have heard in CE Courses given by various (Mc Kissock, Appraisal Institute) regarding developer sales as comparables. I know that this forum is very insightful and informative on these type of topics.
The issue at hand (believe me this is the condensed version) is that I have three reviews all from the same condo complex. The appraiser utilized almost all developer (i.e. condo only a single developer who converted the complex from apartment use about a year ago) sales. There are no MLS listings or MLS sales, and no re-sales. The appraiser did utilize a sale from outside the complex ( I will not for this discussion get into that) but utilized four developer sales and a pending developer sale on all three appraisals.
I have always in reports I have done only utilized a single developer sale (now in a S/F subdivision developer sales from 3 different developers in abscence of re-sales) due to the fact that to do otherwise is letting a single entity set the market.
As I mentioned in several CE classes there has been discussion of this circumstance. In every class it was basically said that only one developer sale is permissable per Fannie Mae. I couldn't find anything, but given my knowhow circumventing the web-site that doesn't mean much.
My question is two-fold. Am I correct about the only one developer sale and if a link is available for printed verification that I can pull out when the phone calls come.
Thanks everyone for any opinions and help.
The issue at hand (believe me this is the condensed version) is that I have three reviews all from the same condo complex. The appraiser utilized almost all developer (i.e. condo only a single developer who converted the complex from apartment use about a year ago) sales. There are no MLS listings or MLS sales, and no re-sales. The appraiser did utilize a sale from outside the complex ( I will not for this discussion get into that) but utilized four developer sales and a pending developer sale on all three appraisals.
I have always in reports I have done only utilized a single developer sale (now in a S/F subdivision developer sales from 3 different developers in abscence of re-sales) due to the fact that to do otherwise is letting a single entity set the market.
As I mentioned in several CE classes there has been discussion of this circumstance. In every class it was basically said that only one developer sale is permissable per Fannie Mae. I couldn't find anything, but given my knowhow circumventing the web-site that doesn't mean much.
My question is two-fold. Am I correct about the only one developer sale and if a link is available for printed verification that I can pull out when the phone calls come.
Thanks everyone for any opinions and help.