hal380
Senior Member
- Joined
- Apr 26, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Connecticut
Sometimes I think I have the right slant on things, and then I start to question myself.
I understand the defininition of value as used in RE Appraisal.. "Informed buyer and informed seller acting in own best interest without undue pressure etc etc....." (paraphrased)
I undestand that "distressed properties" by definition are properties being sold by owners who are under pressure, so I guess they should not be considered in selecting comparable sales.
HOWEVER I am sure in every market there are distressed properties for sale, and a prudent buyer would be alert to these opportunities to purchase below market. So according to the principal of substitution, shouldn't we consider these properties? Should they be reported as a 5th or 6th comp, but not weighted very much in arriving at a final opinion of value. (maybe I am answering my own question just by asking it)
The house I live in was on the market for $259,000 and had gone through 2 divorces, with the attendant deferred maintainence. I bought the house for $205,000 and put $30k into it and believe I could sell it in the current market for $275K+. This purchase by me, meant that I DID NOT BUY
another house in the $200K range.
Your thoughts please.
Regards
Hal
I understand the defininition of value as used in RE Appraisal.. "Informed buyer and informed seller acting in own best interest without undue pressure etc etc....." (paraphrased)
I undestand that "distressed properties" by definition are properties being sold by owners who are under pressure, so I guess they should not be considered in selecting comparable sales.
HOWEVER I am sure in every market there are distressed properties for sale, and a prudent buyer would be alert to these opportunities to purchase below market. So according to the principal of substitution, shouldn't we consider these properties? Should they be reported as a 5th or 6th comp, but not weighted very much in arriving at a final opinion of value. (maybe I am answering my own question just by asking it)
The house I live in was on the market for $259,000 and had gone through 2 divorces, with the attendant deferred maintainence. I bought the house for $205,000 and put $30k into it and believe I could sell it in the current market for $275K+. This purchase by me, meant that I DID NOT BUY
another house in the $200K range.
Your thoughts please.
Regards
Hal