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Do you adjust listings in the grid?

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It depends. :new_smile-l:

No, really, it depends on a lot of things. Here's one example:
Stable market. 4-closed sale comps, adjusted $550-585k. Two listings, adjusted at $545k & 548k. Would Denis consider valuing the property at $550k or higher? You bet I would.:)


In your example the unadjusted listing prices might be somewhere around $565k. I don't think the listings would be anywhere near that low in a stable market. Having two listing agents each set an asking price lower than the closed $585K comp would be... uh, out of character?
 
Elliott ... I am torn by your statement above. I suppose if the scope of work dictates adjustment we are left with one of two choices ... 1) Accept the assignment and adjust the listings for list / sale ratio and clearly state that this would suggest forecasting a future sales price which is clearly not possible and discount the indication provided by the listing.
or we could


One thing I don't understand about this question: applying ratio adjustments to listings would require a disclaimer about "forecasting".

How is this any different than using time adjustments for closed sales?

Aren't time adjustments simply taking an earlier sale and "forecasting" a future sale using a ratio?
 
Like I said, I think it can be done correctly either way, just so everything is properly explained. The reason I hold my opinion of not adjusting is because of the disordered nature of listings. We have listings that sell above LP, slightly below, greatly below, listings that are withdrawn or expire, listings that seem to change their price every two weeks and others who sit on the market for a year at the same price. Many times the LP/SP ratio seems to be determined by the amount of closing help more than anything else, and other listings where the agent actually changes the LP on the MLS on the date of contract, etc. Given the totally psycho nature of listing prices, to me, just taking an average of this disorderly data... I am not confortable with it. One assumption the "adjusters" seem to be making is that the listing will actually sell, for the listings that expire or are pulled off the market for any reason, what is the LP/SP ratio for those (there is none). If the appraiser has the misfortune of picking a listing for their report that does not sell and expires or is pulled off the market, that LP/SP ratio will not even apply to it because it is not part of that data set. I can see the "adjuster's" viewpoint, they feel if the listing is not adjusted for, the value ceiling conveyed will be too high. But my viewpoint is an "average" just doesn't cut it given all the variables involved, so it is good to leave it unadjusted and let common sense dictate how much of a cushion should exist between the value opinion and the listings.
 
One thing I don't understand about this question: applying ratio adjustments to listings would require a disclaimer about "forecasting".

How is this any different than using time adjustments for closed sales?

Aren't time adjustments simply taking an earlier sale and "forecasting" a future sale using a ratio?

Market condition adjustments for time on settled sales bring past sales data up to the effective date of the appraisal. Adjustments to listings are entering the forecasting arena because they are stating what may happen at a future date.
 
Like I said, I think it can be done correctly either way, just so everything is properly explained. The reason I hold my opinion of not adjusting is because of the disordered nature of listings. We have listings that sell above LP, slightly below, greatly below, listings that are withdrawn or expire, listings that seem to change their price every two weeks and others who sit on the market for a year at the same price. Many times the LP/SP ratio seems to be determined by the amount of closing help more than anything else, and other listings where the agent actually changes the LP on the MLS on the date of contract, etc. Given the totally psycho nature of listing prices, to me, just taking an average of this disorderly data... I am not confortable with it. One assumption the "adjusters" seem to be making is that the listing will actually sell, for the listings that expire or are pulled off the market for any reason, what is the LP/SP ratio for those (there is none). If the appraiser has the misfortune of picking a listing for their report that does not sell and expires or is pulled off the market, that LP/SP ratio will not even apply to it because it is not part of that data set. I can see the "adjuster's" viewpoint, they feel if the listing is not adjusted for, the value ceiling conveyed will be too high. But my viewpoint is an "average" just doesn't cut it given all the variables involved, so it is good to leave it unadjusted and let common sense dictate how much of a cushion should exist between the value opinion and the listings.


I agree it can be done either way. I find it fascinating the variety of different techniques used by different appraisers in the same market or even the same subject.

I don't do reviews, but on occasion I'll get a copy of a previous appraisal for my subject. More often I find the comps used to be the same as I think I would have used, adjustment techniques/notes/emphasis to be different and the final number to be really pretty close to what I think I would have arrived at.
 
There's a lot of talk here about using the same policies for every appraisal problem, but the solutions are rarely black and white. It's critical that appraisers understand how the data and the appraiser's assumptions relate to each specific appraisal problem.

For example, we've seen recent listings that are purposely marketed at about 20% below the likely selling price in hopes of creating a bidding war. An appraiser who fails to investigate these listings, or blindly follows dogmatic rules, is going to develop an irresponsibly low opinion of value. It would be equally irresponsible to discard this listing data as "outliers" without first determining the reason for the low asking prices.
 
For example, we've seen recent listings that are purposely marketed at about 20% below the likely selling price in hopes of creating a bidding war.


Question:

Is an arms length brokered transaction, selling for 20% below the established market levels considered a valid comparable if all elements for a sale contained in the definition of Market Value are there?
 
Do you adjust listings in the grid?



Nope.
 


Question:

Is an arms length brokered transaction, selling for 20% below the established market levels considered a valid comparable if all elements for a sale contained in the definition of Market Value are there?

Richard,

Active listings never have all the elments required in the Market Value definition.

I know your question was rhetorical. :)
 
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