I'm not an appraiser and I'm not an attorney. I'm a Realtor. I am stunned that the lender financed this deal with a VA loan. It is extremely obvious when applying for a VA loan that the occupancy requirement has to be fulfilled and that the proposed property is the primary residence of the borrower. There is no way that the borrower wouldn't understand that concept unless he was fraudulently trying to work around the mandatory VA occupancy rules.
It is equally obvious when looking at a condo-tel that those residences can't be used as a primary residence by the owner (check rules). Limiting the number of days an owner can stay in the unit is very prominent within the condo-tel docs and extremely common limitation among condo-tels. It is a major factor when selling those type of units. If the unit was new, then like condo's he has 15 days to check out the rules. If a resale, then 3 days, but there is NO EXCUSE for the buyer/borrower to say "he didn't know" that he couldn't occupy the condo-tel full time as a primary home. To me, it appears he was trying to get a lower rate mortgage with no MI and 100% LTV rather than pay the market rate for a condo-tel mortgage.
Based on the facts as they have been presented so far, I think the buyer/borrower was trying to get one over the lender and got caught. He needs to sell it - take his lumps and hope he doesn't get brought up on fraud charges. Yes, it's fraud to misrepresent any portion of your borrowing status (including the property to be financed) in order to obtain a mortgage loan. The borrower needs an attorney in Florida to help him navigate this. My personal opinion.