J Grant
Elite Member
- Joined
- Dec 9, 2003
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Florida
That is correct. Which leaves us with the required Market value opinion for property being appraised is the two conveyed together."can be equal" doesn't mean the concepts are the same or that including a value-in-use meets the requirements for providing the MV of the property.
Lots of types of value can return the same numerical result, but that still doesn't make them the same thing. In a hot market, the number from your MV analysis can and sometimes will be the same number you return with your "Liquidation Value" or "Disposition Value" . So although the number is the same, the different values are not synonymous with each other.
If an appraiser also develops a market value opinion for the vacant lot alone (I think they should ) , and reconciles that with a value in use for the lot as its role of contribution , and then provides a market value opinion for the property being appraised ( the two conveyed together) -do you see a problem with that If so, please state specifically what it is.