runner52
Sophomore Member
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2010
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Washington
Not quite sure if I'm appraising Fee Simple or Leased Fee. Waiting for client but thought I'd bounce it off in the forum.
The subject was built for owner user - single tenant medical office.
In recent years he started leasing a few offices and exam rooms out to a couple of other medical providers. The rents are ridiculously above market and the leases are expiring in 2021 and 2022.
The property is pending sale and will be purchased by a dentist. The client thinks the dentist will occupy most of the building and possibly lease out some spaces - whether to existing tenants or not is unknown.
The floor layout is such that I have decided to take the 6,000 SF total space and assign a market rate to the whole square footage. Really would be the same regardless if I did that or assign the same rent to each space. The layout and finishes are the same and there would be no reason to assign different rates to the different spaces. And as I mentioned, the building was a single tenant medical office for years.
Typically I would not ignore the leases in place and would automatically say "Leased Fee" but if the buyer is buying for owner occupancy with some chance but not definite - of leasing some space, is it still "Leased Fee"?
The subject was built for owner user - single tenant medical office.
In recent years he started leasing a few offices and exam rooms out to a couple of other medical providers. The rents are ridiculously above market and the leases are expiring in 2021 and 2022.
The property is pending sale and will be purchased by a dentist. The client thinks the dentist will occupy most of the building and possibly lease out some spaces - whether to existing tenants or not is unknown.
The floor layout is such that I have decided to take the 6,000 SF total space and assign a market rate to the whole square footage. Really would be the same regardless if I did that or assign the same rent to each space. The layout and finishes are the same and there would be no reason to assign different rates to the different spaces. And as I mentioned, the building was a single tenant medical office for years.
Typically I would not ignore the leases in place and would automatically say "Leased Fee" but if the buyer is buying for owner occupancy with some chance but not definite - of leasing some space, is it still "Leased Fee"?
