Speaking of lease fee and fee simple, I am in the middle of an interesting one. Subject is a 6,400 sf restaurant under a 10-year lease/option to purchase. Lease date is September 1, 2000, and we are two years into the lease. Seller, lessor, is largest commercial development company in the region, and purchaser is the lessee. My first thought was: The interest in this property is lease fee to seller, leasehold to purchaser, however, after closing the interest will be fee simple to purchaser. The date of the appraisal has to be before the date of closing, so which interest do I appraise, lease fee, leasehold, fee simple, or all three?
Fortunately, I did a thorough summary of the lease and gleaned some interesting information. The first thing I noticed was a flat rental rate at absolute net for ten years with no adjustments. Not characteristic of this seller. There were three option prices. First two year at like $1m; at years 3-5 prices goes to $1.2 million, then from years 6-9 the price goes to $1.4 million.
Then I extracted the IRR for each year to find the lease fee yield rate for each year of the options assuming the option was exercise in any of the years. Very interesting information. This lease was actually setup to force a sale. The lease fee yield rate the 1st two years was 8.2%. Year 3 was 14%, year 4 was 12%, year 5 was 11%, and then in years 6-9 the 14% to 11% rate repeats. This is all due to the option price changes during these years. My conclusion is that this lease is more of a delayed sale agreement than a lease. Basically it gave the lessee time to see if he could make a go of it, gave him an out if he didn’t, and gave a high incentive not to exercise the option within the 1st two year period. It took be four hours to summarize this 25-page lease. These people rap things up real tight. The only thing they didn’t foresee took place 10 days after the lease was signed: 9/11.