A lease that long is probably the same as the fee.
I respectively disagree.
Sorry, I have to couch this explanation in more technical terms.
Only if the lease payment is nominal, like $1/year. Then the LH is equal or nearly equivalent to the FS
when in perpetuity. 99 years is near perpetuity for discounting purposes. The model then has two value components with one opinion of value:
V_LH = V_B + (V_L market minus V_L contract).
As can be seen, if the value of the contract rent to the land is near zero, then you have the value of the building and the value of the land, which takes you to an equivalency of V_LH = V_FS. On the other hand, if the contract rent is at and follows the market rent over the lease term, e.g., inflation adjustments, then the second math term drops out, leaving
V_LH = V_B.
This model is a simplification of the full model because in perpetuity the PV factors zero out short-term property rights. In a very low interest rate/yield environment, once it falls to below 50-60 years, then present value and annuity factors kick-in. As time value of money is exponential math, it is small at year 60 but accelerates quickly when shorter.
This model also assumes that it is purely a land lease, and not some mixing of land rent with a little building allowance by the LL.