spittman
Senior Member
- Joined
- Oct 24, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Texas
Not sure which section this should be posted in. If a moderator feels it should be moved, please do so. The topic is about foreclosure appraisals, but my question is directed towards professionals in the lending industry or anyone with direct knowledge or experience of what goes on during the foreclosure process.
Whenever I call the borrower to set up an appointment for these types of appraisals, and many times the borrower has passed away, so my contact may be a caretaker or executor, but they ask what the appraisal is for. I just tell them that they need to discuss that with the lender.
But how exactly is an appraisal used in foreclosures? Does it depend on what type of loan it is?
Let's say the mortgage balance on a home is $80,000. If they sell the home for $90,000 is the deceased inheritors entitled to the difference or does the lender keep it all? In contrast, if it were to sell for $60,000 would they just have to pay the difference and how excactly does the appraisal play in all this? Is it just a marketing tool for the bank to see so that they can determine how to move forward or does it end up in judicial court somewhere for all to see?
When trying to setup the appointment with a contact that is resistant, I'm compelled to tell them that it is beneficial for them to let me do a full interior, but I'm not sure if that is true or not.
Whenever I call the borrower to set up an appointment for these types of appraisals, and many times the borrower has passed away, so my contact may be a caretaker or executor, but they ask what the appraisal is for. I just tell them that they need to discuss that with the lender.
But how exactly is an appraisal used in foreclosures? Does it depend on what type of loan it is?
Let's say the mortgage balance on a home is $80,000. If they sell the home for $90,000 is the deceased inheritors entitled to the difference or does the lender keep it all? In contrast, if it were to sell for $60,000 would they just have to pay the difference and how excactly does the appraisal play in all this? Is it just a marketing tool for the bank to see so that they can determine how to move forward or does it end up in judicial court somewhere for all to see?
When trying to setup the appointment with a contact that is resistant, I'm compelled to tell them that it is beneficial for them to let me do a full interior, but I'm not sure if that is true or not.