I quoted both of you, because these kind of go hand in hand. A typical varying of interest rate isn't going to make a difference, but special financing can, esp if the financing tied to the seller; that's why it is even stated in the definition of Market Value. If they don't disclose, I will mention it in my report that FNMA requires this and they did not comply. Then I create an loophole for myself that if I did rely on the subject, it is based upon the assumption that the finance was typical for the market and did not affect the price; however, should this be found to be atypical and affected the price, my opinion of value may have been different had that information been disclosed to me.