Current assignment is a new construction duplex. Upon inspection, the owner/builder provided me with the certificate of occupancy. On the certificate it stated under special stipulations and conditions that the owner/builder can not sell within 1 year of issuing certificate of occupancy. This is common in our market when properties are built by the owner/builder and did all the work themselves. So my main question is would I have to use a hypothetical condition to report a opinion of market value?
Since market value is
Market value is the most probable price that a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller, each acting prudently, knowledgeably and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer.
If the subject property can not legally be sold as of the effective date of the appraisal do I need to use a hypothetical condition to report a opinion of market value, which is based on the theory of what it would sell for as of the effective date. Since it legally can not be sold is it misleading to report a opinion of value without the use of a hypothetical condition?
Really appreciate any insight. Local appraiser saod I'm over thinking it and that since it's for a refinance transaction it doesnt matter. I told him that is irrelevant as I'm am reporting a opinion of market value regardless of its a sale or refinance transaction.
Client wasn't helpful either and had to explain more and waiting to hear back but was hoping to get some input from other appraiser's.
Thank you