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I need a fast, non-confusing answer :-)

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Thats what I thought too Tim. If George's assertion is true, then Residential Appraisers need not apply for alot of FRT work, its beyond their level of licensure. I'm sure Mr H will be back and clear things up.:)
 
I posted about this job a week or two ago. Thought it went away but now they are almost demanding that I complete it and money/time is <almost> no object.

4 loans on 4 proposed construction SFR's with garage and granny unit. Zero lot line but there is an inch of space between the units. The 4 lots are to be about 2,000 sf each and are being created by a minor subdivision of a 22,000 sf lot. The developers (which are also the borrowers ... and two of which are being held out as buyers) have tentative map approval and there are utility trunks in place.

Do you have a copy of the tentative map? Will this be 4 separate parcels?

Client is Chaze which I'm guessing is a federally regulated institution? Reporting format is a Fannie Mae form (I haven't decided which one yet).

Do I HAVE to provide an as is value which at this time would be the as yet undivided parent lot with entitlements. Can the client waive the requirement?

Seems to me if you have the plans/specs and tentative parcel map you should be able to do 'subject to' appraisals and base the lot value subsequent to the proposed split.

I could probably get away with developing the as is value of the parent lot if I was willing to do some plagerism of a really good self-contained appraisal I have a copy of (it's for a semi-similar project in general area of the subject). But looking at the methodology, it kind of intimidates me.

Why would you develop an 'as is' value for proposed construction? I must be missing something.
 
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AO-17 says:

A current value opinion assignment does not require an appraiser to provide a prospective value opinion. However, so as to not be misleading the appraisal report should clearly indicate the fact that the value of the property that actually exists as of the date of the report would be different from the value concluded for the property with the proposed improvements completed as described in the hypothetical condition(s) used in the appraisal.

I didn't see anything that said you have to state what that "as is" value is exactly, only that it is different.
 
:clapping: I may be wrong but I ditto Jim... and good catch on the quote...

Fannie doesn't NOT want us to do proposed construction... so they are having the cake and swallowing it whole too with regard to the 'no hypothetical's ... :leeann:

Sorry about the double neg... it has a different connotation than "They DO want us to do proposed/hypotheticals...."
 
My comment wasn't meant to be read that the subdivision needed to be appraised - that entire subdivision was never the subject of this assignment. The 4 units presumably only represent a portion of the project as a whole and don't exist as stand alone parcels or pads at this point. Greg didn't say so, but this appraisal assignment is obviously not for a construction loan but for permanent financing.

If your property consisted a subdivided lot or a condo pad and you were appraising it subject to completion of improvements per plans and specs that would be an assignment that needed an "as is". If your subject is part of a subdivision or condo map that hasn't been recorded then that property interest doesn't exist as yet and there's nothing to appraise.

A borrower can't close on and a lender can't put a loan on a property interest that doesn't yet exist. Lenders don't do construction loans on individual units in a subdivision being built by a single developer and they don't put out money on properties that their borrowers don't already own. They either put out a construction loan on the entire project or they will do permanent financing on the finished units subject to the completion of those units. These are two very different types of assignments.

With the case of the individual condo unit in an unfinished building, even if a lender could do a "construction loan" on such a unit, what would be the collateral? Can a lender either encumber or foreclose on a property interest that doesn't exist yet? Of course not.

Meaningful to the intended users. That's what we're shooting for. Trying to do a hypothetical of another hypothetical is way too far removed from "as is" to be meaningful to anyone.

I've done a number of appraisals for FRTs over the years where I made the comment that I was unable to develop an "as is" value for the subject property interest being appraised because it hadn't yet been created. I've never heard a squeek from any of them and I don't anticipate I ever will.
 
By the way, if my assumptions above were wrong and Greg actually is appraising the entire project then that's a really different assignment; at least as far as an FRT is concerned. Then he would be doing an "as is" of the parent lot, a "subject to" of the subdivision portion and each of the individual pads; and a "subject to" for the finished units.

Incidentally, the value of the project as a whole would probably not be the aggregate of the finished units; there would probably be some discounting involved for the multiple units, absorbtion time, costs of sale, etc. That sort of assignment is definitely outside the scope of practice for a residential appraiser.
 
I think I agree with George....but it is too late in day for me to be concise.

It seems to me that if there will be 4 separate properties, you need 4 separate appraisals, done each SUBJECT TO completion per plans and specs and recordation of the subdivision map.

You might be over-thinking this. Talk to your client and see if that is not want they want. The loans will probably be construction-take out loans with the loans sold to Fannie or Freddie when they are completed AS they are completed. So, it does not have to be "as is" until you do the 1004D, or 442.
 
Thanks George. Dad too.

Yes. 4 separate loans to 4 separate (supposedly) borrowers/buyers. I got stuck because I have that narrative appraisal of the similar project and it has all 4 values in it. But I see the difference now.

My only real comps for this are those units on Versailles Street in Santa Rosa (65 miles south and 1 County over from the subject).
 
GB
The developers (which are also the borrowers ... and two of which are being held out as buyers) have tentative map approval and there are utility trunks in place

can U esplain - "tenative map approval" or do U mean a "preliminary site plan-approval" ??
and if it has any approval OR are there "Conditions by the Town" ??

GH, would have to agree with most comments; here we can do 4 lots in a subdivision, beyond that it goes to a commercial guy
 
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