Why not exclude appraisers certified more than 10 years, the 4 year training with the MAI mentor really messed me up?![]()
Anyone here tough enough to tell me the answer?
Fee simple owner occupied is the exact same as fee simple leasehold.
I appraised a house today. I did it fee simple leasehold. It’s all the same.
Oh. Fee simple leashold doesn’t actually exist in law but you are trying to tell me it does exist?
"It is leased fee. The owner has given up various sticks in the bundle of rights in exchange for rent to a third-party. The owner has given up the right to
The owner has given up some sticks , however the owner has not given up their ownership right ( fee simple ). In addition, the owner has not really "given up" the sticks, he exchanged them for a $ return- he gives up right to occupy etc for X months or years in exchange for receiving rental income for that time period..
- use occupy
- quiet enjoyment
- demolish not use (etc, rest of the list )"
RE when an owner adds a leased fee to a property, it does not erase his fee simple ownership Rather, the leased fee rides on top of the fee simple ownership.
The valuation aspect is when a leased fee is present for the SC of the fee simple would be whether the price would be higher than, lower than, or equivalent to if the lease did not exist.
A third-party controlling the majority of the company of the leasehold can enforce its rights in a court of law. The owner has retained, in the bundle of rights, the right to transfer, gift, will, and mortgage (usually protected by a subordination clause in a lease). A well written lease should subordinate the tenant's rights to the superior eminent domain right that the government has over the fee simple rights.
Hence, the LF value is the As Is scenario.
We cannot assume that a big landlord will bully out a naive 23 y.o. tenant out of a valid apartment lease so that the LL can condominiumize the building in a hot market -- tho' this really does happen.
Therefore, the FS value does not exist unless a hypothetical condition is made.
I don't understand why the FS value "does not exist" unless a HC is made. Isn't t true that the fee simple rights of ownership still exists even when a leased fee is on a property, thus the fee simple can be valued? The fact that the fee simple value might be impacted ( either positively or adversely) by the creation of a leased fee on the property is part of the valuation problem ( unless appraiser chooses to only value the leased fee)
"It is leased fee. The owner has given up various sticks in the bundle of rights in exchange for rent to a third-party. The owner has given up the right to
The owner has given up some sticks , however the owner has not given up their ownership right ( fee simple ). In addition, the owner has not really "given up" the sticks, he exchanged them for a $ return- he gives up right to occupy etc for X months or years in exchange for receiving rental income for that time period..
- use occupy
- quiet enjoyment
- demolish not use (etc, rest of the list )"
RE when an owner adds a leased fee to a property, it does not erase his fee simple ownership Rather, the leased fee rides on top of the fee simple ownership.
The valuation aspect is when a leased fee is present for the SC of the fee simple would be whether the price would be higher than, lower than, or equivalent to if the lease did not exist.
A third-party controlling the majority of the company of the leasehold can enforce its rights in a court of law. The owner has retained, in the bundle of rights, the right to transfer, gift, will, and mortgage (usually protected by a subordination clause in a lease). A well written lease should subordinate the tenant's rights to the superior eminent domain right that the government has over the fee simple rights.
Hence, the LF value is the As Is scenario.
We cannot assume that a big landlord will bully out a naive 23 y.o. tenant out of a valid apartment lease so that the LL can condominiumize the building in a hot market -- tho' this really does happen.
Therefore, the FS value does not exist unless a hypothetical condition is made.
I don't understand why the FS value "does not exist" unless a HC is made. Isn't t true that the fee simple rights of ownership still exists even when a leased fee is on a property, thus the fee simple can be valued? The fact that the fee simple value might be impacted ( either positively or adversely) by the creation of a leased fee on the property is part of the valuation problem ( unless appraiser chooses to only value the leased fee)