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Lender Wants Only 5 Acres Valued Out Of 13?

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The initial discussion was centered around the request from a mortgage client for the appraiser to state the subject parcel was a maximum of five acres when in fact it is eighteen acres. The client is asking the appraiser to commit a factual misrepresentation of the subject property. Can the appraiser render a credible opinion that is not misleading given those constraints? Why would an appraiser inculcate themselves into the loan approval process by asking or telling a client that a GSE may not accept the appraisal report? By doing so, you may be viewed as advocating for a client's cause.

I don't buy into The Five Acre Appraisal argument. It is an oversimplification of an extremely complex problem. Anyone who has done feasibility analysis or been intimately involved in the development process will understand how much time and effort would be required for such an endeavor. It ignores such basic requirements as public hearings, environmental impact reports, geo-technical surveys, soils-engineering reports, MFA analysis etc. Now really, for the purpose of mortgage origination is a client going to be agreeable to a HC based report that could easily exceed several thousand dollars in cost?
 
Thank you Mr. Faravelli.

"House a 5 acre" appraisals are just not appropriate for everyday mortgage appraisals. The client would not be asking for them if there was not some sort of problem with lending on the property as it currently exists and saying it is something that it is not does not change what they are lending on.
 
Agreed!!!

Even though it CAN be done legally in certain specific situations, it is NOT appropriate for mortgage lending where they are trying to get the appraiser to make a square peg 'appear' to fit into a smaller round hole. The mortgage loans available for these properties are likely not as easy to sell to the borrower as the LTV and other terms are not as easy. LO/MB, usually in cahoots with the borrower, then try to force a fit into an easy residential loan package using the appraiser.

There are loan programs for these over 5 acre properties and it's up to the LO to find them, not for the appraiser to 'fix' the subject.
 
I don’t think I’m repeating too much covered area, but if I am, I apologize.

I’ve always been told that the reason the lenders wanted a property limited to “5-acres” is because they wanted to make sure that the value was in its “residential aspect” of the property, and not make a land loan (I’ve seen limits from 5 up to 20 acres; who sets these is anyone’s guess).
As far as it being “appropriate” for a mortgage loan to be made with this type of assumption, what do I know? That’s the lenders business; if their number crunchers determine that is the criteria, more power to them. If they think they are better protecting themselves from risk by artificially “reducing” the subject’s actual lot size, maybe they can sleep better at night. I really don't care why they want it like that. What I do care about is if I give them an appraisal that is USPAP compliant only using 5-acres?

There’s no doubt that it can be done using a Hypothetical Condition (that’s what they are for- form an opinion of value on a property based on conditions known not to be factual).
HC’s must be CLEARLY stated & identified in the report so the value is not misleading. I put a big header on my reports when I have to use them, and condition the report “subject to the HC and underwriter review”.

Many appraisers don’t understand what an HC is (even the ones that do new construction assignments and give a value as completed). So rather than stating “this appraisal is based on a Hypothetical Condition”, they’ll accept our 5-acre assignment and state in the report something like “per lender instructions, no value given to lot area in excess of 5-acres” and make the report “as is” (I’ve seen this while reviewing). When the lender goes to bundle that loan with others and sell them on the secondary market, he can honestly represent “None of these mortgages were made using appraisal reports with Hypothetical Conditions”.
Fannie buys the loan, the borrower skips town, Fannie owns the property and sues the appraiser.

While I agree with those who have argued that you should try to identify the now “hypothetical lot”, I don’t think you need to be a surveyor to do so. You have to accurately describe the subject as it is. And I personally would include a comment that specified if the hypothetical lot would conform to the zoning (min. lot size).
But since we’ve created a “hypothetical piece of property” now to appraise, why can’t we make additional “hypothetical conditions” such as the lot would be in compliance with zoning, it will have access to roads, utilities, proper set-backs, you-name-it, etc. I don’t see any reason why we couldn’t.
(Ok, so when we get the order, we ask the client, “you know, I can do this, but it will be based on a several Hypothetical Conditions which I’ll clearly state in the report, is that what you want?” Their only response is going to be “Ok, ok, but I need it tomorrow- can you go out there tonight?”)

Is there anything else I’d want to add to this “Hypothetical Report”? Yes, a statement saying something like-
A. The use of HC’s as requested by the client makes this report non-compliant with Fannie’s guidelines, and may render the report unacceptable in the Secondary Market.
B. The possibility of the Hypothetical Conditions used in this report actually occurring in any meaningful time frame in regards to the effective date of the appraisal is so remote that it is reasonable to conclude that the HC’s will not occur and are not likely to occur.


OK, let me go through my checklist:
1. USPAP compliant? Yes.
2. Client advised of approach and agrees? Yes.
3. Report misleading? No. Hypothetical Conditions clearly stated and additional statement included saying the likelihood of those conditions being met is remote.
4. Is the report “credible and reliable”, and meaningful to the client based on their intended use? I would think so- In fact, it is custom made to their exact specifications.
5. Did I collect COD? Yes, always on an assignment like this.

Well, looks like I’m in pretty good shape.
 
It's never the legitimate bank or lending institutions that ask for these. It's usually mortgage brokers and internet lenders. They want a down and dirty, lowest rate, cookie cutter property to lend on in order to get the low interest, loss leader program advertised to the public and they are all trying to compete with each other.

I view doing a "house and 5 acre" for these types of intended uses as being the same as checking the owner occupied box of a tenant occupied residence.

Just comparing the subject on a 40 acre tract to a property on a 5 acre tract for purposes of comparison doesn't cut it IMO. You'll get some sort of artificual value and make the property seem like it's just a 5 acre property in terms of value and get a desirable land to improvement ratio I suppose. But why do you suppose lenders may be hestitant to loan on large tracts... Is it because there are fewer buyers of these and/or the marketing time may be signficantly different? Are these issues addressed in the "house and 5's?"

What about like some of my sub-markets which are like Rays (or maybe it was Blue1) where a small acreage parcel can command a higher price than a large acreage parcel? What if all properties in the area are 40 acres and you try to do a HC appraisal based on 5? Do you now state that this hypothetical property is atypical?

Unless ALL of the issues are addressed, these are misleading appraisal reports. And if you write the report correctly, they probably will not loan on the property.
 
How is the appraisal made? "As is" or "subject to?"
 
T.E.,

If you are asking me, it is "subject to".


And by the way, Greg, I have had a goofy "HC" requested by a large and very legitimate Bank (offices nationwide, in the top 10 residential lender group). Although my situation wasn't the same as the 5-acre scenario, you be the judge if there are any similarities-

It seems a client of theirs owned a fourplex that they had loaned against. He then converted it to a condo, and retained ownership of all four units. He wanted to refi, so we got the assignment. It was ordered as a fourplex.
In doing our research, we noted a number of unusual things that didn't add. I called the loan officer several times to get a copy of the preliminary title report. I finally had to go to one of the assistants and got a copy of the prelim (now here's the really unusual part); in the prelim, the property was described both as a non-condo and as a condo? I tried to get in touch with the signing title officer, but never got a call back. I finally got a call from another title officer who told me that he has never seen it done that way, he would never do it that way, but "technically", since the property has remained under one ownership, it could "theoretically" be described both ways (my BS meter was off the scale). He added, however, that once one of the units sold, it would have to be described only as a condo. I asked him if he didn’t think the way the report was written, it was misleading? He declined to opine on that.
In the meantime, the original loan agent is screaming at me, at the appraisal center, and everyone else she can get on the phone to appraise it as a fourplex.
Needless to say this gets kicked up several levels. The final decision is that they want me to appraise it as a fourplex even though everyone knows it’s a condo. (They don't sell to Fannie, by the way).
So, I appraised it as a fourplex, making it "subject to" the HC that it was a fourplex and not a condo, and fully disclosed that it was a condo. I stated that I was only doing this for a specific value at the client's request, that the client is a sophisticated lender in the national mortgage market, and that the client is fully aware of the actual configuration. I also included reference to my conversation with the title officer stating that the subject's description as a fourplex was not typical and could be misleading (my conclusion).
I put warning statements on almost every page of the report and throughout the addendum.

They took the report and made the loan.

Why they would want the report like that, who knows? They weren’t “fooling” anyone because they were going to keep it themselves. And, there was enough email traffic on this deal (generated by me alone) that it wouldn’t surprise me if the Chairmen knew this thing was a condo and not a fourplex. My point, however, is regardless of “why” they wanted appraised that way, they felt they had a legitimate need, and they got what they wanted.
 
Originally posted by Denis DeSaix@Sep 3 2005, 09:01 PM
If you are asking me, it is "subject to".
"subject to" what?

Wouldn't it be "as is" under the hypothetical condition used in the development?
 
Denis,
I may not be reading your story correctly (like if a "fourplex" asa four-unit apartment), but I don’t see the HC.

Even if the ownership changes from fee simple to condo, the project owner still has the right to lease out these units - so “fourplex” remains a permissible, possible (though maybe not most profitable) use of the property as-is. I suspect that the capitalized value of the rental income is less than the present value of condo prices – and thus condo is a higher and better use (more profitable) than apartment complex. And that value as fourplex is use value
 
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