ZZGAMAZZ
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jul 23, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
Quick Question: How is the original question addressed in the scenario that you describe? Are you opinion that GRM based on partial occupancy is equally as accurate as fully-leased units--or even more pertinent if the baseline market standard is comprised primarily of partially-leased multi-units???By definition, the GRM is the mathematic relationship between the sales price and the rent of a property that was rented at the time it sold. If there are no current sales that let you do that, then you analyze older or distant sales to extract the GRM. Ideally, those are the same sales you used as comparables in Sales Comparison Analysis. Sometimes that isn't possible. When it's not, you use other methods and you explain, explain, explain.