Richard Carlsen
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 15, 2002
- Professional Status
- Licensed Appraiser
- State
- Michigan
Well, I see what you are saying Richard, but after beating this up in an appraisal class, with about 40 Appraisers, the general consensus was if you say you are appraising a property Fee Simple, and there are not any owned mineral rights for instance, you are asking for trouble as it could be construed as misleading.
I don't think that is correct, regardless of how many of the 40 appraisers might disagree. In the market where I am referring to, the mineral rights on the vast majority of the properties is never a market consideration. We could not measure any difference in sales values for residential properties with or without mineral rights. And we checked this at least 2-3 times a year. Therefore, it really was a non-issue.
A short story: The first house I bought in the Gaylord area in '94' had the mineral rights but the owner was selling and retaining the rights. It was a house on two lots. In order to save some money, he had let the real estate broker draw the deed. About a year later, we got a check from the gas developer for our mineral rights. I called and told them that the previous owner reserved the rights. They said they saw the attempt to do so in the deed but that the wording in the deed had been done wrong and we now owned the mineral rights. We now get a check from them about every 6 months for about $60. So much for saving money.
