hastalavista
Elite Member
- Joined
- May 16, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
The question is IF a property were OWNER OCCUPIED ... could it still not be a commercial property even though it has no income either from an historical perspective or for a forecasted future?
Are ALL commercial properties income producing???
Ok, I think I get it-
Yes- if a property were owner-occupied it can be considered a commercial property if it is capable of becoming income-producing. So, the fact that it hasn't been, isn't, or may not isn't the litmus test. The test is "is it or can it be" capable of producing income?
Again, from the Dictionary of RE:
"...and owner-occupied properties that are capable of becoming income-producing should the owner so decide..."
So, do I get a passing grade? :new_smile-l:
