- Joined
- May 2, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Arkansas
I think USPAP only requires us to "identify" the property, so the deed is not required, handy but not required. It can be a part of the deed and be identified. I see lots of properties on multiple lots, some separable (excess) and some not (surplus). However, your results may vary with FHA or FNMA. They may require something USPAP doesn't. And USPAP does not require a "deed" to identify a parcel being valued.however I told them the only way I could do that was subject to separating the deed. Do you think I was correct? Thanks
- Method of Identification:
The appraiser must clearly state the method used to identify the subject property, such as a specific address, description, or other relevant identifiers. - Identify the characteristics of the property that are relevant to the type and definition of value and intended use of the appraisal, including:
(i) sufficient characteristics to establish the identity [emphasis added] of the item including the method of identification.
- NOTHING IS SAID ABOUT A DEED
The reality is that is correct. But the lender still wants what they want and either you comply or back off the assignment, right? In my home state, a MH on a lot is "real property". In Oklahoma, they have a process of "surrendering title" to make it real property. If it has a tag like a car tag, it's personal property. And even then, it's clear as mud HOW it gets treated. I find tax parcel cards with no description of the Manf home (personal property) and some where it is explicitly measured, identified and aged.There is no real estate sales contract.