hastalavista
Elite Member
- Joined
- May 16, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
Not really. The FAQ only seems to address the cost approach’s reliability in the context of market value, but not for insurable value. The FAQ doesn’t say what one should do if the client is explicit about using cost for insurance, and doesn't say what one should do if the appraiser has reason to believe insurance decisions are what the client will use cost for. So, I sent the ASB some specific follow-up questions. Since they responded to me directly, I took it to mean they don’t intend to publish their responses (that is, if they are still doing monthly QA’s).
Should we discriminate between mortgage finance appraisals to be reported (and consistent with) the GSE's guidelines and appraislas for similar purposes (market value) but with different SOW guidelines?
GSE guidelines are explicit as to their intended use (market value for mortgage finance transactions). Althogh in their selling guide they require the orignating lender to ensure that there is a sufficient hazard insurance backstop on the collateral, I'm not so clear that the link can be made that the implied requirement of insurable value is really the same as the explicit requirement for market value?
Keep in mind that I'm only talking about appraisals that are completed on the GSE forms with their pre-printed and non-modifable SOW! :icon_lol: