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Not sure about a revision request

Right, I don't know why she said that either. I'm wondering if she read the report or was going by what someone told her.
Was the second parcel discussed in your report
 
Why would the lender make the request unless the second parcel was discussed in the report. That is what doesn't make sense.
I am not sure what they call them in Texas. But around here separate parcels will have their own unique parcel number. Are they taxed separately
Yes, each has its own parcel number and they are taxed separately.
 
Based on your recounting of the Lender's request, it seems clear to me that your assessment is spot on, correct and appropriate. In training/supervising more than a few Trainees, there comes a point when I see it's appropriate to remind them that they are the ones whose opinion is the one that matters and not the Lenders or the AMCs. One needs to recognize that were an appraisal to come before a regulating body such as the state, you and only you are legally responsible for defending your conclusion/valuation and no one else. Again, from the facts presented, your initial assessment is correct, that is the "answer" to the HBU question is correct. If the Lender insists on including the second 13 acre parcel being included in the valuation, then "No" to the HBU question is correct. Stand your ground and do not allow them to brow-beat you into agreeing to something you believe is wrong. Do not let the tail wag the dog.
How could people not understand what th lender wants-
The Lender is NOT asking the second parcel be included in the appraisal

The lender is asking the appraisal be made subject to the second excess lot be on a spea[re deed, and level the appaisla alone other than that.
 
Was the second parcel discussed in your report
The second parcel was not mentioned in the original version of the report. When the lender asked for a revision of the address, I mentioned in the comments that the owner owns 2 parcels and the second parcel had the address they were asking for and that the CAD didn't know where that address came from and that the 911 addressing authority showed that the address didn't exist. I may have overexplained but they were absolutely insistent about me changing the address.
 
The second parcel was not mentioned in the original version of the report. When the lender asked for a revision of the address, I mentioned in the comments that the owner owns 2 parcels and the second parcel had the address they were asking for and that the CAD didn't know where that address came from and that the 911 addressing authority showed that the address didn't exist. I may have overexplained but they were absolutely insistent about me changing the address.
What did USPS say about the address since that is the required format
 
How could people not understand what th lender wants-
The Lender is NOT asking the second parcel be included in the appraisal

The lender is asking the appraisal be made subject to the second excess lot be on a spea[re deed, and level the appaisla alone other than that.
Makes no sense at all. So, the appraisal is "subject to" a parcel being on a separate deed that has absolutely nothing to do with the requested appraisal.
 
A legal description has a beginning point (POB) and and ending point that should conclude at the POB...the dimensions described should close like that. This closed area is referred to as a parcel. Multiple parcels may appear on a deed and describe the totality of the area for which the owner has property rights via a transfer of those rights...it's kinda like a receipt for an item or multiple items. They may be adjacent or spread all over the country. Appearance on a single deed does not make them a single unit. You don't go to the store to return an item and get told you are only allowed to return everything that was on that receipt....same concept.
 
How could people not understand what th lender wants-
The Lender is NOT asking the second parcel be included in the appraisal

The lender is asking the appraisal be made subject to the second excess lot be on a spea[re deed, and level the appaisla alone other than that.
You are the one who can't see the issue as it is. There are two legal tracts. The appraiser appraised one. The second just so happens to have an owner who also owns part of the first. The second was recorded on a separate deed when initially purchased. There is nothing warranted or added to the appraisal by making it subject to something that has no connection to the appraisal problem. The lender is wrong.
 
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