Em Tee
Senior Member
- Joined
- Jan 14, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- California
Background: the subject is located in an area of homes where the average size is 1800-2700 sq ft. The subject was enlarged and is 3700 sq ft. It still conforms in style to the rest of the neighborhood and you can't tell by looking at it that it's that large (it was nicely done). Anyway, I used 2 comps close by that were 2700 sq ft and 2100 sq ft. Then I used 3 comps from 1 mile to 2.5 miles away that were 3200-3600 sq ft. I used a very minimal sq ft adjustment for the subject's additional sq ft. I gave the most weight to my nearest comp at 2700 sq ft. My final value is $10,000 over the highest unadjusted sales price of my comps.
Now I get back the following condition:
The next largest sale in the subject's actual tract of homes is 1800 sq ft. I wouldn't consider this as a "comp" for the subject, but yet it sounds like they want me to use this. Should I add one more comp and just give it no weight?
Ideas?
Now I get back the following condition:
When the subject property is over-built for the area, this client expects a common sense approach to value. What this means is they expect you to provide all comps from the subject's immediate market area (even if all the comps are smaller) and give full value up to the largest typical home for the market. Then adjust for the sq.ft. above the largest typical home at a fraction of full value per sq.ft. used in your report.
The next largest sale in the subject's actual tract of homes is 1800 sq ft. I wouldn't consider this as a "comp" for the subject, but yet it sounds like they want me to use this. Should I add one more comp and just give it no weight?
Ideas?