210 acre excellent course w/ named architect, 18 holes, 27k sq ft of commercial-improvements and senior water rights. Private non-equity club, they are losing money under this model. They are arguing it should be valued as open space. There is a city operated golf course across the highway also excellent quality operating a public daily fee course at a profit (slightly lesser quality course). There is a 154 acre residential parcel also across the highway with 5 x 5acre subdivided parcel envelopes and a 17k sq ft res-improvement sold $9m (smaller land area, lower intensity of use, and inferior water right). The course is also currently (historically) valued a little over $9m. The course owners are arguing for a $5m (taxable) value. They attempted negotiating with the HOA owners, but the HOA don't want the course due to the capital losses on the bottom line to the overall business (some of them think they will be able to get it for free once the original developer goes into bankruptcy). The development somehow has around $17m in debt (more a reflection of the business model in my opinion the business itself is worthless). Speaking strictly on the real estate component, due to a land preservation subdivision, lots surrounding the course were allowed to build at a greater density of 5 acres (35 acres normally required), however in this process the course itself according to county planning/zoning will likely never be allowed to have greater density or build-out despite their senior water rights.
So I am at a bit of an impasse on how to reconcile this opposing data. Common sense would dictate a smaller property, with inferior water, and inferior allowed intensity of use (res vs comm) would be the value floor, and the unknown component is would they even be able to get a profit if they went semi-private or daily fee even, because it would increase the supply in the county by approximately 30% overnight. I have very limited data to determine actual demand as the courses have kept their rounds played and so on confidential and I'm pigeon-holed in a rural area where data won't necessarily relate perfectly to a more urban area where I could obtain this data.
In some articles I've read that value transfer doesn't really happen with the lots surrounding the course, that the course should be valued on its own merits.
Looking for any insight really. This is beyond my competency, I'm being forced to do this valuation under a jurisdictional exception rule. I've taken a day course on appraising golf courses and read the AI book on it, but they don't go into these unique scenarios.
Thanks in advance!
So I am at a bit of an impasse on how to reconcile this opposing data. Common sense would dictate a smaller property, with inferior water, and inferior allowed intensity of use (res vs comm) would be the value floor, and the unknown component is would they even be able to get a profit if they went semi-private or daily fee even, because it would increase the supply in the county by approximately 30% overnight. I have very limited data to determine actual demand as the courses have kept their rounds played and so on confidential and I'm pigeon-holed in a rural area where data won't necessarily relate perfectly to a more urban area where I could obtain this data.
In some articles I've read that value transfer doesn't really happen with the lots surrounding the course, that the course should be valued on its own merits.
Looking for any insight really. This is beyond my competency, I'm being forced to do this valuation under a jurisdictional exception rule. I've taken a day course on appraising golf courses and read the AI book on it, but they don't go into these unique scenarios.
Thanks in advance!