Hassan Nesredin
Freshman Member
- Joined
- Jan 15, 2020
- Professional Status
- Appraiser Trainee
- State
- New York
I know this has come up a few times however I cannot seem to find a thread that properly asseses the issue. I am shadowing a very experienced appraiser who seems very knowledgeable about appraising homes. The other day we visited a raised ranch home for an appraisal and the discussion came up about the proper square footage on a raised ranch home. Just to give you some details on this property, it is 100% above grade with no portion of the residence being below grade. The appraiser stated the bottom portion of the residence will always be considered a basement and would not count towards the GLA despite the fact that it is above grade. The "above grade" portion the appraiser used was 987sq/ft however if the bottoms portion were to be used, the total square footage would have been 1,600 sq/ft.
In addition, the city/county assessment indicates the sq/ft is 1,600 sq/ft. I do not understand why there is no uniformity when it comes to assessing raised ranches. The criteria on GLA seems very clear "Only finished above-grade areas can be used in calculating and reporting of above-grade room count and square footage for the gross living area."
I do not see how this is still an issue with no clarity. I do not see this being a major issue for new homeowners however when it comes to reassessing a property for removal of PMI, I can see this being controversial because the city and county are taxing you at a higher rate based on the highter sq/ft however the investor is stating the appraisal is based on the lower sq/ft.
Can someone please shed some light on what the correct procedure would be?
In addition, the city/county assessment indicates the sq/ft is 1,600 sq/ft. I do not understand why there is no uniformity when it comes to assessing raised ranches. The criteria on GLA seems very clear "Only finished above-grade areas can be used in calculating and reporting of above-grade room count and square footage for the gross living area."
I do not see how this is still an issue with no clarity. I do not see this being a major issue for new homeowners however when it comes to reassessing a property for removal of PMI, I can see this being controversial because the city and county are taxing you at a higher rate based on the highter sq/ft however the investor is stating the appraisal is based on the lower sq/ft.
Can someone please shed some light on what the correct procedure would be?