Reinspection new effective appraisal date same LOE

[J Grant]

I'm not the one telling anyone to do anything. That's kind of the point... some folks think they should be able to force compliance with their opinions and some folks think others are grown up enough to make their own decisions. I'm in the latter party. You're obviously in the former.

It's not in compliance with my opinion.

USPAP requires compliance with disclosure of prior service, and you were supporting, not making that disclosure. That is a USAP violin which has nothing to do with anyone's opionon. If you make your own "grown-up decision" not to comply with USPAP, there could be consequences.

If I were in the mess the OP created for themselves, I would follow the advice of a new assignment. I can make my own creative adn whacky decisons on my own time!

 

[Tom D]

A "service" was provided with the 1st inspection. The appraiser told the lender there was an issue with sump pump. Now why you just didn't send the appraisal in then with the issue stated is goofy.

I would use the date of 1st inspection, and the new signature date. You could state on an addendum why it was done this way. However, with the original inspection date on the appraisal there would only be 1 service, done on the date of inspection, but you would normally state the re inspection of the sump pump is tech another later service, not prior if using the 1st appraisal inspection date.

This is just an apraisal with a subject to repair, but the lender wanted it done a certain way. Hard money guys are not fannie, freddie or FHA lenders.

 

[Tom4value]

?? The appraiser went there twice, which means they must disclose the first time they went. The disclosure is for ANY prior service.

Did the appraisal not happen? My impression is that the appraiser did the appraisal, but perhaps did not turn it in. It does not matter—they went there on a prior date for a valuation and the rule is to disclose any prior service (whether or not it was an appraisal ) . Why recommend doing this-not disclosing a prior service is a USPAP violation.

From what I got, the appraisal did not happen. Went out and inspected and the client then told the appraiser to wait until work was done. No appraisal, no report. Nothing given (read: no service done) for the client. If this is wrong and something was done and submitted to the client then yes, you are correct.

 

[J Grant]

From what I got, the appraisal did not happen. Went out and inspected and the client then told the appraiser to wait until work was done. No appraisal, no report. Nothing given (read: no service done) for the client. If this is wrong and something was done and submitted to the client then yes, you are correct.

ANY kind of prior service is what USPAP states .

You just said above that the appraise went out and was inspected. An inspection is a prior service.

 

[alebrewer]

ANY kind of prior service is what USPAP states .

You just said above that the appraise went out and was inspected. An inspection is a prior service.

Citation, please.

 

[alebrewer]

ANY kind of prior service is what USPAP states .

You just said above that the appraise went out and was inspected. An inspection is a prior service.

If the engagement was terminated or fulfulled, you're correct.

 

[J Grant]

Citation, please.

Citation for what? I already posted a citation (AI) about USPAP, and it says right there ANY kind of prior service. An inspection is a service.

 

[Tom D]

Citation for what? I already posted a citation (AI) about USPAP, and it says right there ANY kind of prior service. An inspection is a service.

Well yes, if you use another later appraisal inspection date, rather than the original visitation date, because of the dam sump pump.
Telling the lender da sump pump broke was the 1st service provided, if you change the inspection date.
That you didn't get paid at that moment for telling them that is a business decision, not paid for the provided service.
The judge finds some of the witnesses here to be dopes.

 

[Tom4value]

ANY kind of prior service is what USPAP states .

You just said above that the appraise went out and was inspected. An inspection is a prior service.

Was inspected but didn't provide anything to the client, from what I gathered. From the OP, "Report was placed on hold." Again, nothing wrong with stating exactly what happened, anyway.

 

[Tom D]

He provided a verbal report, da sump pump has a problem. That is why the client put it on hold.
Services would include an inspection report.