But aren't waivers, even if the same default risk as loans made with an appraisal, Dose;'t the WAIVER present more risk to the taxpayer because they are the ones and only ones stuck with the loan loss in case of a default or short sale/other non performance?
For example, let's assume loans using an appraisal have a .07% default rate, while loans using a WAIVER have .07% default rate. One can say the WAIVER is no higher risk than the appraisal. However, if an appraisal is used and the value turns out part of the problem in a default, the lender can be responsible for the loss as well as an appraiser if the appraisal was faulty.
But with a WAIVER, the lender bears no responsibly (reps and warranties,) and there was no appraisal done. So that .07% loss now accrues to the tax payers-