hastalavista
Elite Member
- Joined
- May 16, 2005
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- California
This is an excellent question.
Up to now, all of my review clients use a variance rule; usually somewhere between 3-5%.
Except, now, I have a new client that has been burned a number of times; they loan 2nds and use the primary lender's appraisal that was completed for the 1st TD.
I tried to steer the client toward a variance, but the client was adamant; either agree or provide your own value.
So, what I do is when I conclude my own valuation, if the original report is within my adjusted range, I will usually conclude it is reasonable and acceptable.
There's always an exception: If the adjusted range is wide, and the original report's value is at the top, and I conclude that a value toward the mid/lower range is the accurate value (and the difference of the original vs. mine is significant), then I'll provide my lower value.
Up to now, all of my review clients use a variance rule; usually somewhere between 3-5%.
Except, now, I have a new client that has been burned a number of times; they loan 2nds and use the primary lender's appraisal that was completed for the 1st TD.
I tried to steer the client toward a variance, but the client was adamant; either agree or provide your own value.
So, what I do is when I conclude my own valuation, if the original report is within my adjusted range, I will usually conclude it is reasonable and acceptable.
There's always an exception: If the adjusted range is wide, and the original report's value is at the top, and I conclude that a value toward the mid/lower range is the accurate value (and the difference of the original vs. mine is significant), then I'll provide my lower value.