Thanks for all of the input. I know how I am going to proceed now. It is clear that copious amounts of explanation will be required.
I am still stuck on one issue, and this does not have so much to do with the appraisal itself, but rather a curiosity for my own education. Why would a bank allow/become involved in a transaction like this? It seems to me that having the borrower (in my original description, this was party B) as the individual being financed makes no sense when they are immediately giving the rights to the property to party C. Party B, now financed (even if it is for one penny) has no collateral to back up the loan. In this case, would the mortgage immediately be closed on the same day, with both transfers listed in public records? Or, because of the secondary contract, is Party B never going to show up as any part of the sale? I think I understand that this is a single transaction, I'm just not getting why Party B would continue to be named on the appraisal as the borrower, unless Party C is immediately paying cash for their part in the transaction. On the second contract, Party C is named as the assignee, with Party B as the assignor. On the second document, it states -- Assignor has negotiated a purchase price on the subject property of $68,000 Adding the assignment fee of $19,000, the Assignees total purchase price is $87,000. Since the Assignee is NOT the borrower in this case, what difference does the second contract make? For my engagement letter, there is the client and party B. Party B is still buying the home from Party A for $68,000. I'm sorry to sound so dense on this, but I am just trying to wrap my mind around all the involved parties.