PropertyEconomics
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- New Mexico
RNM,
Don't be discouraged by the hostility on the forum. I would also warn about taking posters advice when not backed up by citation. The quote below is from The Appraisal Foundation and may or may not be of help to you.
USPAP Q&A Vol. 10 No. 3 March 2008
Does Appraising a Physical Segment Require Use of a Hypothetical Condition?
Question:
I received a request to perform an appraisal on an improved property; however, the client only wants me to provide an opinion of land value, giving no value to the improvements. Does such an assignment require the use of a hypothetical condition, since the improvements exist but are not being included in the value?
Response:
No, such an assignment does not require the use of a hypothetical condition.
Standards Rule 1-2(e)(v) permits the appraisal of a physical segment of a property. In this example, the segment being appraised would be the land. Put simply, the land is the subject of the assignment and the improvements are not. To avoid communicating a misleading appraisal report, the report would have to acknowledge the existence of the improvements on the land, but they do not have to be included in the valuation.
USPAP defines a hypothetical condition as:
that which is contrary to what exists but is supposed for the purpose of analysis.
In this example, a hypothetical condition would not be required because the land does, in fact, exist. This is no different than the situation that commonly exists in appraisals
employing the cost approach. In arriving at an opinion of value by the cost approach, an appraiser often develops an opinion of the site value as if vacant, separate from an estimated value of the improvements.
This can be contrasted by an assignment that includes providing a current value of proposed improvements. Appraising the improvements as if currently completed is contrary to what exists, so a hypothetical condition would be required in that case.
Not to rehash old things, but to rehash old things, the land "as vacant" does not exist and if you are using vacant land sales as your indication of value (or unimproved land) then you are in fact appraising something different then that which exists if the property owner owns both the land and the improvements. The appraisal would be hypothetical according to USPAP ... read the document and you will find it to be true.