I attended an appraisers conference the past couple days. One of the speakers who is the chief appraiser for a large, but local bank gave a talk on requirements. He stated that any property that is either proposed construction, new construction, or to be renovated MUST have both a "subject to" value AND an "as is" value. He said you cannot have a "subject to" value dated today on a property that does not exist or will exist at a point in the future. He said that this "rule" went into effect on Dec 11, 2010 and the reason it hasn't been enforced yet is that the lenders are still learning that this is a new requirement. (Although I wasn't clear on WHO the new requirement was issued by.)
I asked for clarity--as did many people there. I understand that a proposed construction would have an "as is" value of just the land value. AND that a "to be renovated" property would have an "as is" AND a "subject to" value. BUT, how does an appraiser put an "as is" value on a property that is already under construction? When I asked him this specific question, his answer was to say that depending on how far along it was, it would have value as a storage building only??????
Does anyone out here in appraisal world know about this "NEW" requirement by lenders? This chief appraiser said that lenders were not to accept anything that did not have BOTH values.
HELP---I have been doing appraisals on new construction. I will stop doing them if this is a new requirement because I do not have the vaguest idea on how I would do it.
Thank you ahead of time for any help.