So, I can rebut Presumption #1 for any reason. But the regulation then says if the creditor does not meet one of the non-required* conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2) [which is the requirements of Presumption #1] then compliance is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without a presumption of either compliance or violation.
In other words, if rebutted but I've followed all the non-required conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2), then I am in compliance. It is only when I don't meet those conditions that my case is "determined based on all of the facts and circumstances" and even then, I may be found to be in compliance.
One might ask, "if they are required to show compliance, why are they called 'non-required' in the regulation?"
It seems the answer is clear in the last bolded part of the excerpt above. Note that the second section says determination will be based on the specifics of the case. If the so-called non-required conditions were required, then one couldn't presume compliance or non-compliance; if required and not followed, the lender/AMC would be in non-compliance, period. That isn't what the regulation says. It allows for an individual case to be judged based on its circumstances even if all the 'non-required' conditions weren't followed.
An explanation of this seemingly illogicality may be this: Let's say the lender follows all but one of the non-required conditions in Presumption #1. But, by happenstance, it happens to pay the same rate as the VA schedule. The lender may have tried to claim it was following Presumption #1 but it didn't meet all the non-required conditions. But, by chance, its fees are the same as the VA. I think a complaint that they were not following Presumption #1 would be found to be moot since at the end of the day, wittingly or unwittingly, they were paying what is considered C&R under paragraph (f)(3).
One can rebut Presumption #1 all they want. But if a lender is in compliance with the 1st Presumption's non-required conditions, then compliance is no longer presumed to be in place but is determined to be in place.
Note that the excerpt above does not say, "Regardless if a creditor...does not meet one of the non-required conditions". It says "if a creditor...does not meet one of the non-required conditions."
That is a significant difference that determines if the lender (or its agent, the AMC) process can be evaluated outside of Presumption #1.
Indeed, this is how Louisiana found Coestar in violation of C&R. Coestar did not provide evidence of compliance with all the conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2). Louisiana was right to charge them on Presumption #1 because they were in non-compliance.
Had Coestar been in compliance with Presumption #1, Louisiana's case would have (a) not been raised or (b) gone nowhere.
Anyway, that's my interpretation. As I said, I'd be interested to hear yours.
If I may, and I'm not a lawyer...........
No one "rebutts" one Presumption at a time. Please re-read the ENTIRE IFR,
The "rebuttal" is that the fee paid is not a C&R fee. The "Presumptions" kick in to determine if the fee paid can be presumed to be a C&R fee, when no direct evidence to the contrary has been presented.
However, when there is direct evidence that the fee paid was not a C&R, no presumption exists, and the investigation then proceeds, to identify what a C&R fee is for the specific assignment, in the "geographic market" based on the education and experience of the appraiser, and considering any unusual/atypical/special assignment conditions associated with each assignment.
Each fee has to pass TWO tests. One for Customary and one for Reasonable. Those tests are spelled out in the IFR.
AND,
Those "tests of C&R" are not the conditions of either Presumption, as the Presumptions do not establish C&R, they are merely backdoors that can be used when no evidence to the contray exists.
Once C&R is determined for similar assignments in the same geo-market, performed by appraisers with similar education and experience, and with similar assignment conditions, it is then judged against the fee that was paid to the appraiser, to determine if the appraiser actually recieved a C&R fee or if, Appraiser Independence was violated.
That's what the IFR says.
C&R is not a list of: "This is the fee for a 1004" in these states/cities/counties without any consideration for timeframe, additional assignment conditions or the education and experience of the appraisers.
The other thing to remember is that eventhough Presumption one allows for "recent rates", the test for C&R does not allow for fees paid by AMCs to be included in the determination of what C&R is for each individual assignment.
Very expensive to investigate and litigate.
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