Questions, if you will please: Perhaps I have a misconception about the weight of this issue, but also perhaps not.
Report what you saw and let the UW live with the decision.
Please elaborate on UW chain of command and consequences now and also in the future. The notion that the underwriter will be made to 'live with it', may not be that weighty, unless the appraiser clearly and conspicuously reports on that issue so nobody can miss it. Down the road, the UW may be thinking the same thing about the appraiser may have to live with it, and it could turn into a he said she said sort of thing.
I got ten bucks that says the AMC never checked with the bank.
Related to below
When will the lenders realize that the AMC is absolutely NOT working in their best interest or the interest of their borrowers?
As a rule of thumb, many here argue that to be a true statement, and indemnity legal arguments are currently ongoing.
Question for appraisers who argue see no evil, speak no evil, hear no evil.
At what point do you inform the lender about inconsistencies with occupancy issues?
Either you're the eyes and ears of the lender on the ground or you're not. Drawing conclusions which require several highly specific assumptions regarding the scenario seems like seeking predetermined results, rather than an unbiased transparent approach.
Please elaborate taking into account the glass is not always half full, and people do defraud lenders about this issue quite often. Is there liability issues, and to whom? Is occupancy description and ensuing loan categorization really that nominal of an issue that appraisers can ethically just sweep it under the rug like that? What if? How weighty is the what if here?
______________________________________________________________________
Personal anecdote: I just finished a damaged cost to cure homeowner repair loan refi. Grandson lived in unit and pulled wool over families eyes before they found out and outed him finally. Home super trashed and needed $40k repairs. Insurance did not cover because home not properly insured for rental use. That's real world consequense to starting a loan as an owner occupied, and finishing it as a rental without informing the lender or insurance. Now I'm dealing with an elderly on that one, but the question is still valid. Will homeowners have the option to alter insurance while maintaining the owner occcupied loan? There are many questions there, and I assume you know what they are. Please elaborate on the various complexities with these scenarios.
Sure sometimes it's as simple as a divorce. And you can ask a direct question about that. Then you can include a statement in the report that you asked the homeowner directly a question about owner occupancy and report their answer. That's clear and conspicuous to me. But what if they're lying? Why sidestep the issue when you can confront it directly? Pass all the blame back to the blameable party - the homeowner. As an appraiser I am the eyes and ears, and I ask direct questions then report that within the report. Knowing the right questions to ask is important and I guess I've never ran into someone lying about occupancy before and am not sure how I would handle it.