United Wholesale Mortgage reports an appraiser to the state board for following USPAP.

[Dale Floyd]

It’s a new assignment, even if retaining the same prior effective date.

Prior services must be disclosed, if prior services were performed before the signature date within the last 3 years. Does not matter what the effective date is. (If we appraised a property last year, and then are requested to do a retrospective analysis as of 2015 for tax purposes in a new assignment involving that, we still must disclose prior services.)

To answer the OP. There should not have been a complaint based on the info you’ve revealed. And your question as to why they didn’t communicate with you first - Can’t answer that one, but they should have.

 

[Zoe]

It’s a new assignment, even if retaining the same prior effective date.

Prior services must be disclosed, if prior services were performed before the signature date within the last 3 years. Does not matter what the effective date is. (If we appraised a property last year, and then are requested to do a retrospective analysis as of 2015 for tax purposes in a new assignment involving that, we still must disclose prior services.)

To answer the OP. There should not have been a complaint based on the info you’ve revealed. And your question as to why they didn’t communicate with you first - Can’t answer that one, but they should have.

yeah. If you mowed the yard for the owner, it is prior service. LOL

 

[Zoe]

I understand they want to see any potential bias on the subject property real property rights. I understand the reasoning.

 

[Dale Floyd]

yeah. If you mowed the yard for the owner, it is prior service. LOL

Agreed. That’s the way the rules are written, even if services aren’t specifically appraisal related.

 

[Zoe]

If you really want to keep it clean. Do new assignment with new effective date and go to subject again. As an appraiser, you did not create this problem. You set SOW. Forget other personal interests in the subject property real property rights.

If your client does not want to do that, then say thank you for considering me and consider me again on your next assignment. You as appraiser set the SOW.

 

[Zoe]

Don't make me choke. Have you been paid for February assignment? LOL

It is not funny to me. I have a few thousand outstanding. I charge interest over 30 days. I need a bookkeeper.

On my agenda this week. I got a new puppy. I have to pay for it. I don't understand why lenders can't pay their bills but expect you to pay your bills.

 

[Zoe]

If that appraiser has not been paid on original appraisal, I am not an appraiser that lender would want to play with. I worked collections in banking in cooperation with lawyers. I am not somebody you don't want to pay.

I understand mistakes happen. We can work it out. It is easy for lender to show they paid me or have not. We can work that out one way or another.

 

[RedWriter]

If I was doing the report, I would have stated April as the effective date, Feb as the date of inspection with an EA that the subject was in the same physical condition on both dates...

or, if the client doesn't want that method, inform the client that it is a new assignment and new fee and inspect the report in April with an April effective date.

In either instance, I don't see a USPAP violation.

You should communicate better with the client on what they want and get it in writing. Don't assume.

You can't do that one. The 1004 form says the date of inspection is the effective date of the report.

You either have to do a new inspection or keep the old effective date.

 

[sputnam]

In the past I have completed a “new report” without inspecting the subject again if the client keeps the effective date same as previous report….

According to mckissok USPAP this class this does NOT comply with USPAP. There were multiple questions about “if you have already inspected a and completed an appraisal on a property and were later engaged to complete another appraisal with an effective prior to the previous appraisal, you may not indicate you personally inspected, because a personal inspection did not occur as part of the new scope of work.

An inspection occurred as part of the previous scope of work.

It was fairly interesting, and I am 100% sure I did not misunderstand the question because the same question was asked multiple times in different wording.

Seems like a strange thing to have as part of a USPAP class

Sort of... you can do a retrospective appraisal... which by definition means that you inspected the property at some time later than the effective date. You have to specify the inspection date, the effective date, and the report date in the appraisal report.