Laughing Heir
Senior Member
- Joined
- Oct 16, 2007
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Pennsylvania
http://www.workingre.com/are-you-committing-appraisal-fraud/
I am curious about what other appraisers think of the author's argument that he presents in Scenario One. I have an assignment in my queue right now where there are no sales in the neighborhood, which has not happened to me on a residential assignment yet.
If you have one (1) sale at $100,000, wouldn't the scale be from $100,000 to $100,000? And, if you had a sale at $100,000 and another at $125,000, then the scale would run from $100,000 to $125,000. And so on. Why would the logic change if there are zero sales in the neighborhood?
What I'm inferring from this article is that the scale at the top of page 2 reflects whatever subjective criteria the appraiser may have used to delineate his or her market segment in that neighborhood (i.e., $1,000 to $100,000 in the WorkingRE article).
TLDR- if there are zero sales in a neighborhood, why would you not define the resulting price scale as an empty data set?
I am curious about what other appraisers think of the author's argument that he presents in Scenario One. I have an assignment in my queue right now where there are no sales in the neighborhood, which has not happened to me on a residential assignment yet.
If you have one (1) sale at $100,000, wouldn't the scale be from $100,000 to $100,000? And, if you had a sale at $100,000 and another at $125,000, then the scale would run from $100,000 to $125,000. And so on. Why would the logic change if there are zero sales in the neighborhood?
What I'm inferring from this article is that the scale at the top of page 2 reflects whatever subjective criteria the appraiser may have used to delineate his or her market segment in that neighborhood (i.e., $1,000 to $100,000 in the WorkingRE article).
TLDR- if there are zero sales in a neighborhood, why would you not define the resulting price scale as an empty data set?