DMZwerg
Senior Member
- Joined
- Mar 25, 2009
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Wisconsin
In the context of the question, the report CAN be USPAP compliant. USPAP does not require any property be physically inspected. It only requires that the appraiser have adequate information about the property to report credible conclusions about the property.
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And I don't even have a math degree. I've just got an analytical mind and a bit of common sense.
That assumes we were given the entire CONTEXT surrounding the question. If we were the most correct answer is "yes", if we weren't then things are not so black and white.
Example: "Here we deal with mortgage transactions on Fannie Mae forms such as the 1004. If the appraiser has not inspected the subject property nor the comparables, and states precisely that in the appraisal report, can that situation be in compliance with USPAP?"
Now, given additional context is the only possible answer the same?
Well, the answer then depends on how you answer it, such as: "USPAP does not require inspection ... but Fannie Mae form 1004 does and the SOW statement ..."
So heck yeah I am reading more into it because the OP did not state "The head appraiser asked ..." nor any other relative context information. My point is that the correct answer can vary based on the context in which the question was asked.