No. I'm trying to learn whether an independent appraiser would utilize the market valuation from the CAD in any way. Would the appraiser have used the market valuation from the CAD to support the large purchase price?
If the tax valuation had been correct, at 570k would the appraiser have been more or less likely to appraiser at a sale price of 1.5m?
If it is an argument that we overpaid, and their tax assessment influenced the sale price and subsequent appraisal, I'd like to go after it. If it doesn't, I'm going to leave that arguement alone. Just here trying to fact find and educate myself on how these two things may or may not be related.