Did you read the post by DW. Check out page 5^^^^^
It would be nice to see a comparison of deals with waivers and without, filtered by LTV and credit score. Ms Grant makes a very good point in her above post.
The problem is the misleading narrative that says things like appraisals have a higher default rate than WAIVERS as if the valuation itself made the default rate greater or lesser, when it was in large part the borrower strength in both credit rating, downpayment and other factors^^^^^
It would be nice to see a comparison of deals with waivers and without, filtered by LTV and credit score. Ms Grant makes a very good point in her above post.
Most of those numbers are pretty close. The biggie I see is that 87% of ACE originated loans were Re-fi's, about 60%+ more than none ACE eligible.Did you read the post by DW. Check out page 5
Well, according to some, the appraisal is a "risk management tool".The valuation of the residence has absolutely zero correlation to the risk of default. Not even sure why that is even being measured - other than an attempt to confuse folks.
It is a risk management tool. It provides the lender (or should) with a sense of their collateral exposure in the event of default. The valuation is not a predictor of default, nor does it influence the potential for default - AT ALL. In fact, the only time a valuation product is necessary is if there is a default. If there is no default - it's a signature loan. The appraisal (if one was procured) would have been a waste of money.Well, according to some, the appraisal is a "risk management tool".
I keep on trying to figure out how that would correlate in determining default. I gave up because it made my hair hurt.The valuation of the residence has absolutely zero correlation to the risk of default. Not even sure why that is even being measured - other than an attempt to confuse folks.
The ONLY correlation I can come up with is that there MAY be higher risk of default for lower priced properties. If it turns out there is a correlation between the two: (1) it would be HIGHLY problematic if the GSE's took that stance, and (2) even then - there is correlation - but no causation... IOW - even if lower values are correlated to higher defaults, the valuation document was not a causal factor in the default.I keep on trying to figure out how that would correlate in determining default. I gave up because it made my hair hurt.