it is hard to fathom the OP survey includes going two states away for a Daycare sale is an answer
The town is within 10 miles of a state line. I certainly would have tried to decipher any FO depreciation had I found a daycare sale. I didn't' find one. I checked 2 Arkansas counties (separate MLS) and the MLS in OK covers 4 counties basically. I didn't check the Tulsa MLS because I felt that market would be markedly different.
What would a typical buyer use that space for, and what would they pay for that space in your market?
The town in question has very, very few restrictions upon property. Most of the restrictions relate to state law regarding a daycare. Certainly, in the original appraisal, I did deduct for the FO of restoring the walls to make it useable for a dwelling like it originally was. But the addition begs the question - would a residential buyer even look at a 2-piece property? I would say the typical buyer would be someone wanting to take over the business and operate it as a daycare. Wherein lies the rub. No sales of daycares, and I found nothing I thought would be an adequate proxy for a daycare, like someone running an insurance or law office out of a house. My own insurance agent bought my old agent out, and he's housed in a dwelling on one side and bakery on the other...yummy cookies they sell there too. But he's looking to move into a better facility - it was just all that was available within his budget.
So, I will develop and weight the CA. I will do an across-the-board adjustment at cost in the SA, and give it the lesser weight. And I won't develop an IA - I just don't see it would be very reliable. And the SA and CA will necessarily replicate each other for all practical matters. So, if I were to leave out the SA, wouldn't really see a problem with that.
PS - if this was for secondary market, I would have turned it down flat out.
The point is, the cost approach may or may not align with what buyers are willing to pay
That may be true, OTOH, the seller may set the price as what they have invested. And the buyer might be looking at the ability of the property to cash flow. Which is a consideration on why the income approach might give you a value. But what value? Market value or value in use? I would argue the income approach will give you a value of the on-going concern. The lender only needs (requires) the value of the real estate. The total property value (including on-going enterprise and FF & E) can be different from the market value of the real estate.
Thanks for the responses, it's an interesting problem.