Sadie
Elite Member
- Joined
- Mar 20, 2008
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Oregon
The problem with this article, as pointed out, is that there is insufficient information. There was an pod cast through Appraisal Buzz about the Austin TX couple and their appraisal. It was interesting and it raises so many questions and circular arguments. First of all, if there are insufficient sales in the immediate area, and you have to go to another neighborhood, do you go to the closest or the most similar? Appraiser #1 went to most similar and appraiser #2 went to closest. Which one was right? And why? If I get comps from a competing similar neighborhood, that is farther from my subject than other closer dissimilar neighborhoods, then am I racist or do I know my market? What about the other way around?
If I make location adjustments I use sales data to back up those adjustments. If there is a disparity from one neighborhood to the next are we supposed to ignore it when the predominant race of that neighborhood is different? I say make the adjustment because the price differential exists. I am not adjusted to race, religion or anything else, just sales price. Prices are higher/lower here than in my subject neighborhood and here is the adjustment.
If I make location adjustments I use sales data to back up those adjustments. If there is a disparity from one neighborhood to the next are we supposed to ignore it when the predominant race of that neighborhood is different? I say make the adjustment because the price differential exists. I am not adjusted to race, religion or anything else, just sales price. Prices are higher/lower here than in my subject neighborhood and here is the adjustment.