mark hurlock
Senior Member
- Joined
- Jul 4, 2006
- Professional Status
- Certified Residential Appraiser
- State
- Delaware
So you consider the contract relevant...and you explain your rationale for your opinion of value being at, above or below the contract?
Rex, who said my appraised value needs to be the exact contract price or else the contract is irrelevant and I have to explain. You are so misinterpreting what I am saying.
Example:
Buyer signs contract for builder sample house but leases the house to the builder for $50k upon settlement.
This contract can be irrelevant as an arms length transaction having been influenced by the lease agreement. And maybe the builder gave away extras and furniture to make the deal and so on and so forth.
The contract “price” is no more relevant than the price of a comparable. Price is NOT a consideration for comparable sale selection any more than the contract being relevant.
It is the motivations of the buyer and seller and any concession that may influence the deal.
Furthermore,
that section of USPAP also considers previous sales, Why?
Because you are to determine if a prior sale was arms length, not if the price it sold for was relevant.
A prior sale is acceptable as a forth comp if it was arms length. But if a father sold his house to his son and you appraised it six months latter, you would not consider the previous sale relevant, not because of the price but the circumstances.
Are you getting this now?
Last edited: