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Closed Sale After My Inspection Date

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One of the tenets of USPAP is what your peers do. JGrant you have a bunch of peers that are telling you what they think is acceptable. It will not persuade me to change the way I do things but at some point Don Quixote gave up tilting at windmills.

Yes, we have 8 peers on their side vs 6 on "our" side...at least on this thread. Peer practice can change over time, ...some trends stay, others remain. It was common peer practice (for some) during the boom to provide comp checks to clients , remember the heated debates on the board? That went the way of the dodo bird after HVCC punished all appraisers for the actions of certain peers during the boom who could not say no.
 
One of the tenets of USPAP is what your peers do. JGrant you have a bunch of peers that are telling you what they think is acceptable. It will not persuade me to change the way I do things but at some point Don Quixote gave up tilting at windmills.

USPAP isn't it more one of the standards is peer practice? We have division among appraisers...some believe effective date means exactly what it states, others are fluid about it. Who we decide our peers are on a particular practice issue is up to each of us to decide. Put it in google search, the older threads on this topic show up with a division among appraisers. I never considered those appraisers doing comp checks and inflating value by Skippy tricks during the boom as my peers, even though plenty were doing it. An inflated value is different than a credibly supported high value...sale prices rose so yes all values were higher, but in the boom, as now , it comes down to how the value was developed.

If it reaches the point where 100 appraisers are using any old date up to signature date and only one using effective date as intended, I suppose at that point the one would be out of sync. We are not there yet.
 
Note that Mr Rex and Peter Lequire BCJR, Pushin Valu, Mike Kennedy ( see their posts) share my view so it is not just ONE person....
ah hum.....while they may prefer to list it as a pending sale, none of them contend that gridding it as a sold sale with full disclosure is anyway misleading. You, my dear take the solo chair on that.
 
The rent and lease terms on commercial/industrial properties isn't often discoverable, or readily available to the public, either. Does that mean the income approach is not relevant and can't be used?

?? Not the same thing. If appraiser discovers a contract price while pending, state it and use it in analysis. Which is different than not using the sale when it was pending, and instead using it after it closed. Do you understand the difference? .

Should appraisers also toss out all listing data because it is not closed as of the date of value? Listing can't help set the upper limit of value because they're not closed?

Who said to ignore listings? Nobody ever said to do that, including me. If the comp was pending as of effective date, use it, who said to ignore ir, or not use other listings?..

All data should be used in its proper context.

Doesn't that argue for what the data status context was as of effective valuation date?


Readers of appraisal reports for lending assignments typically are sophisticated readers. They should no how to read an appraisal report. The only issues that arise will be due to the appraiser not be clear on a particular matter, or the reader not being sophisticated.

Even appraisers can't agree on this topic and can't agree on many topics. I doubt most readers for lending understand the implications .


Yes, if done properly. Obviously some matters require disclosure be more prominent than others; e.g., USPAP requirements pertaining to hypothetical conditions and extraordinary assumptions.

The appraiser should perform their duties as an appraiser as prescribed by USPAP, state license law, etc. The appraiser cannot be responsible for a lender or AMC having an ill-trained or untrained individual reviewing the report.
 
Note that Mr Rex and Peter Lequire BCJR, Pushin Valu, Mike Kennedy ( see their posts) share my view so it is not just ONE person....
ah hum.....while they may prefer to list it as a pending sale, none of them contend that gridding it as a sold sale with full disclosure is in anyway misleading. You, my dear take the solo chair on that.
 

ask them then, one at a time...I cant' speak for what they think about that particular aspect, but they believe in using the comp status on grid as it was as of effective date.
 
None of the other viewpoint posters have addressed the inconvenient fact that the valuation of subject is as closed as of effective date...(the MV definition, implicit as consummation of sale/passing of title as of a specified date and specified date links to the MV opinion as of effective date).

They treat the subject as if it is available on the effective date and after it, since the price of subject as of the effective date can keep changing, per events that happen after it .

If our appraisal SCA model is the subject closed as of effective date at our most probable price opinion, then how can that price change due to events that happen after the effective date? I am waiting for any of them to address it!
 
Again, YOU are the ONLY PERSON that holds the position that your way is the only way that is not misleading.
 
Stop distorting facts... 6 posters vs 8 share my view of closed vs pending..whether their reasoning is because doing otherwise is misleading , ask them, but the content of their posts indicate it as a line of reasoning.
 
Not misleading.
 
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