DEFINITION OF MARKET VALUE: The most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller, each acting prudently, knowledgeably and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby: (1) buyer and seller are typically motivated; (2) both parties are well informed or well advised, and each acting in what he or she considers his or her own best interest; (3) a reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market; (4) payment is made in terms of cash in U. S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and (5) the price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions* granted by anyone associated with the sale.
Nottrav ( any of us) Above URAR definition states: implicit is a consummation of sale ( closing) with passing of title as of a specified date ( specified date is the effective date)
Therefore, since the market value of the subject is based on its implicit consummation of sale as of the effective date, how can it's price change after the effective date?
I closed on my house sold for 290k on June 19. Done, funds deposited, title passed. Then on June 21st, I find out house across the street sold for 300k. Can I go back and ask the buyer for 10k more and re-do the closing? I don't think so.
Whether we like it or not, an appraisal value opinion is slightly retrospective back to its as of effective date. If our analysis of subsequent market activity between effective date and signature date shades our market value opinion I suppose that is baked into the process. But the market activity up to the as of effective date is the time period relevant to assignment results ( see post 66 above)