Gobears81
Senior Member
- Joined
- Nov 7, 2013
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Illinois
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Apologies if a similar topic has been posted already but I didn't find it in the search
I am appraising a proposed property and there is a TIF agreement. I will probably determine the anticipated TIF reimbursements via assessment comparables, though there are slim to no properties of this type in this county of comparable age/ quality levels. I've seen an appraisal where the appraiser "built up" the discount rate for the TIF income stream via a safe rate, then added a premium for management and illiquidity. I guess that's fine enough, but if a cap-rate driven investor is the most likely purchaser, are they really going to go this route? I'm thinking no. Then again, they would be more likely to head down this path than an owner occupant I would presume.
I am tempted to use a property model (R+G) to support a discount rate based on the premise that a passive investor won't significantly differentiate the rates for the property itself vs TIF reimbursements. But, I can't help but think that logic is a bit flimsy also. I am not aware of other comparable sales where a TIF value can be extracted. Any thoughts on supporting/ determining TIF discount rates?
Apologies if a similar topic has been posted already but I didn't find it in the search
I am appraising a proposed property and there is a TIF agreement. I will probably determine the anticipated TIF reimbursements via assessment comparables, though there are slim to no properties of this type in this county of comparable age/ quality levels. I've seen an appraisal where the appraiser "built up" the discount rate for the TIF income stream via a safe rate, then added a premium for management and illiquidity. I guess that's fine enough, but if a cap-rate driven investor is the most likely purchaser, are they really going to go this route? I'm thinking no. Then again, they would be more likely to head down this path than an owner occupant I would presume.
I am tempted to use a property model (R+G) to support a discount rate based on the premise that a passive investor won't significantly differentiate the rates for the property itself vs TIF reimbursements. But, I can't help but think that logic is a bit flimsy also. I am not aware of other comparable sales where a TIF value can be extracted. Any thoughts on supporting/ determining TIF discount rates?
) and in this case the assessment is most likely to be considerably less than the value of the property, which acts as a cushion to market gyrations, but I wonder if there is still a risk element there?