Austin
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 16, 2002
- Professional Status
- Certified General Appraiser
- State
- Virginia
I got my class manual out on Economic obsolescence that I got when I took the class from Dr. William Kinnard about 12 years ago. The last time I posted above on this subject this book was at the office, so I took it home to use, now I am at the office.
He said a number of things that may be of interest on this subject, but he said that location was a form of external obsolescence as some one above stated. I beg to differ on the following grounds: When you say there is external obsolescence in a residential property due to location, here is what you run into. Lets say there are three subdivisions. A is one mile from the Mall, B is 5 miles from the Mall, and C is 10 miles from the Mall. All subdivisions are identical in quality, design, and appeal. Lets say it can be shown that there is a $5,000 average price difference between each subdivision depending on distance from the Mall. Lets say we are appraising a house in subdivision C. We do the cost approach and extract all depreciation elements from the subject subdivision C as well as site value. In this case, there is no locational obsolescence included because all of the data was from the same subdivision.
Now we perform the sales comparison approach and used sales from subdivisions A & B with the subject in C. Now we have location adjustments of $5,000 and $10,000. If the houses were identical it would appear that the locational obsolescence is in the land. If I remember correctly, Kinnard said external obsolescence was always in the improvements. That being the case, locational differences are not forms of obsolescence but differences in time-distance relationships and totally a different factor. You can’t build locational obsolescence into the house but if it exist, it musts be in the site value. If locational obsolescence exists at all, then what is the bench market against which it is measured?
In summary, if we say that locational obsolescence exists in the subject property, then what is the benchmark against which you are making the measurement and is it attributal to the land or building?
He said a number of things that may be of interest on this subject, but he said that location was a form of external obsolescence as some one above stated. I beg to differ on the following grounds: When you say there is external obsolescence in a residential property due to location, here is what you run into. Lets say there are three subdivisions. A is one mile from the Mall, B is 5 miles from the Mall, and C is 10 miles from the Mall. All subdivisions are identical in quality, design, and appeal. Lets say it can be shown that there is a $5,000 average price difference between each subdivision depending on distance from the Mall. Lets say we are appraising a house in subdivision C. We do the cost approach and extract all depreciation elements from the subject subdivision C as well as site value. In this case, there is no locational obsolescence included because all of the data was from the same subdivision.
Now we perform the sales comparison approach and used sales from subdivisions A & B with the subject in C. Now we have location adjustments of $5,000 and $10,000. If the houses were identical it would appear that the locational obsolescence is in the land. If I remember correctly, Kinnard said external obsolescence was always in the improvements. That being the case, locational differences are not forms of obsolescence but differences in time-distance relationships and totally a different factor. You can’t build locational obsolescence into the house but if it exist, it musts be in the site value. If locational obsolescence exists at all, then what is the bench market against which it is measured?
In summary, if we say that locational obsolescence exists in the subject property, then what is the benchmark against which you are making the measurement and is it attributal to the land or building?