D
Deleted member 134708
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I have been getting a bunch of these lately but turning them down as I don't think the 1004 form is really set up for them.
Order: SFR/FHA
"Intended Use of Appraisal: The intended use of the appraisal is to develop the as-is Market Value, which is a Mortgagee’s tool for determining the list price of a HUD PFS Property (24 CFR § 203.370). The purpose of the appraisal is to determine market value on a default property."
"Intended User: FHA is the intended user of a Pre-Foreclosure Sale (PFS) appraisal."
The owner as-is, as of effective date, is a person, they are usually in default or some hardship but they are still the owners.
So if I appraise as-is with MV as defined you would come out to $500,000. This is the hypothetical transaction of MV between Axle Rose the current owner and Jimmy Kimmel the buyer. And I guess my out would be "hey in the intended use you said "appraisal is to develop the as-is Market Value" anything else you say after that is on you a decision maker/discounter etc.
If I appraise as a defaulted property/REO akin/set list price for REO etc (point is not typical transaction) It would appraise for $450,000. This is a fact. DO NOT say but but...Just accept 1 intended use is $500K, and the other $450K.
Problem: If I give them as-is current owner the value is $500K, It will do them no good and it just sits on market as an REO and eventually sells for $450K. I don't think this is what the intended user wants. Although the intended use does say MV......."which is a tool...." so I guess this could be your get out of jail card. You gave MV and that is their tool to then do their own discounting. "Hey, you asked for MV as defined, it was $500K with Axle Rose holding the deed."
I really wish there was a 1004REO form.
So again, I haven't done any of these as the form and their intended use don't really match up. There would be conflicting lingo and data flying everywhere.
How would you all go about it? If you appraise for $500K, what CYA do you use? If appraise for $450K, what CYA do you use? I don't have strong feelings either way, just want to do it the most correct way with CYA verbiage.
Facts: Typical owner/buyer sell for $500K. REO anything akin sells for $450K all else being equal. This means like, everything else equal. As in no difference but ownership.
Order: SFR/FHA
"Intended Use of Appraisal: The intended use of the appraisal is to develop the as-is Market Value, which is a Mortgagee’s tool for determining the list price of a HUD PFS Property (24 CFR § 203.370). The purpose of the appraisal is to determine market value on a default property."
"Intended User: FHA is the intended user of a Pre-Foreclosure Sale (PFS) appraisal."
The owner as-is, as of effective date, is a person, they are usually in default or some hardship but they are still the owners.
So if I appraise as-is with MV as defined you would come out to $500,000. This is the hypothetical transaction of MV between Axle Rose the current owner and Jimmy Kimmel the buyer. And I guess my out would be "hey in the intended use you said "appraisal is to develop the as-is Market Value" anything else you say after that is on you a decision maker/discounter etc.
If I appraise as a defaulted property/REO akin/set list price for REO etc (point is not typical transaction) It would appraise for $450,000. This is a fact. DO NOT say but but...Just accept 1 intended use is $500K, and the other $450K.
Problem: If I give them as-is current owner the value is $500K, It will do them no good and it just sits on market as an REO and eventually sells for $450K. I don't think this is what the intended user wants. Although the intended use does say MV......."which is a tool...." so I guess this could be your get out of jail card. You gave MV and that is their tool to then do their own discounting. "Hey, you asked for MV as defined, it was $500K with Axle Rose holding the deed."
I really wish there was a 1004REO form.
So again, I haven't done any of these as the form and their intended use don't really match up. There would be conflicting lingo and data flying everywhere.
How would you all go about it? If you appraise for $500K, what CYA do you use? If appraise for $450K, what CYA do you use? I don't have strong feelings either way, just want to do it the most correct way with CYA verbiage.
Facts: Typical owner/buyer sell for $500K. REO anything akin sells for $450K all else being equal. This means like, everything else equal. As in no difference but ownership.
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