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Impact Of Pending Sales On Opinion Of Value ?

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Begging the question but FWIW, USPAP discourse on the wisdom of using pending sales in a retrospective assignment--because they would have been revealed by due diligence on the effective date--does not address the outcome of the properties under contract on the effective date, because the outcome--good, bad, or indifferent--would not have been known. A rationale opinion could not possible approve of the use of pending sales--not ONE PENDING SALE THAT CONTRACTICTS THE ENTIRETY OF THE MARKET--in a retrospective assignment but not in a contemporaneous assignment.
 
Begging the question but FWIW, USPAP discourse on the wisdom of using pending sales--because they would have been revealed by due diligence on the effective date--does not address the outcome of the properties under contract on the effective date, because the outcome--good, bad, or indifferent--would not have been known. A rationale opinion could not possible approve of the use of pending sales--not ONE PENDING SALE THAT CONTRACTICTS THE ENTIRETY OF THE MARKET--in a retrospective assignment but not in a contemporaneous assignment.
 
Begging the question but FWIW, USPAP discourse on the wisdom of using pending sales in a retrospective assignment--because they would have been revealed by due diligence on the effective date--does not address the outcome of the properties under contract on the effective date, because the outcome--good, bad, or indifferent--would not have been known. A rationale opinion could not possible approve of the use of pending sales--not ONE PENDING SALE THAT CONTRACTICTS THE ENTIRETY OF THE MARKET--in a retrospective assignment but not in a contemporaneous assignment.

If one pending sale contradicts the entirety of the market (how does it do that...very different price?), either that pending sale is an outlier and may not belong in the report, or the entire market is poised on the brink of change if it is a "sign", and you have a complex appraisal problem ! A pending sale, like anything else in an appraisal, has to be analyzed, and it is our judgement whether to include it on grid or not.. A pending sale does not occur in a vacuum, there are other listings, even if not in immediate area, subdivision, there are RE agents to talk to about it etc.
 
Esteemed, Honorable Counselor JGrant: The need to conduct due diligence does not need to be proffered. Seems like each time I post in an attempt to test the proverbial waters-of-thought, underlying factors inherent in the concept are brandied without furthering the scope of the discourse. The most salient issue concerning data points that do not represent--in this case, "the market"--and that consequently, with support from academia, are excluded from the analysis, is whether to spell the plural as "outliers" or "outlyers." That having been said, and with consideration for the obligatory caveat that "markets are imperfect," they rarely are, a tangible rationale almost inevitably existing to explain extraordinary deviations from the mean, given sufficient resources, e.g., due diligence conducted to determine the source of variance. It isn't as though one would include pending listings in the SCA grid that reflect current market activity, and subsequently remove them if they fail to support the adjusted value range established by closed sales. Rather, the appraiser would note that pending sales included in the grid as the best reflection of market reaction, based presumably on contract dates more recent than those that correspond with the closed sales, or that they do not appear to support that range, but that if not, a sufficient sample of data does not exist to enable the appraiser to opine the potentially dramatic change in market direction--although a change in a market that's appreciated as much so as local sub-markets most everywhere normally would be relatively dramatic, even if the trend reflects a normal movement to regress towards that mean of a long-term positive market best defined as the flip reversal to the systemic decline in its midst a decade ago--that because the "as is" basis of most assignments precludes the appraiser's wherewithal to opine prospectively. But all that drivel is implied. Rather, I would ask whether one might logically extrapolate USPAP rationale as it applies to the appraiser's liberty to use pending sales in a retrospective assignment to the fact that he or she is required to do so, in an "as is" contemporaneous assignment, based on common law precedent as it would be if the appraisal profession was more fastidious.
 
ZZ... pending sales are market evidence. You seem to be placing all relevance on the closing as the only indicator and I don't agree with that. The conditions of the sale trumps the closing price. I've place GREATER weight of the initial contract over the closed sale price before and adjusted the contract price. USPAP does not require the use of a pending sale as a comparable, but neither does USPAP prohibit such use. Standards Rules requires that an appraiser ". . . not commit a substantial error of omission or commission that significantly affects an appraisal . . .". Not considering a pending sale of a property highly similar to the subject property could constitute an omission that would significantly affect the appraisal. USPAP requires appraisers to be complete in their analysis and convey that analysis in a way that is not misleading. We can't ignore market evidence. We need to verify the conditions of that pending sale, just as we do with closed sales. The meeting of the minds in a legally binding contract can't be ignored. I don't know where you are going with 1 pending sale being in total contrast to the market. Verification should disclose why that is so that your data, analyses, assumptions and conclusions are logical. Not only does this include the use of other pending sales, but it includes the use of the subject sale, active listings as well as other indicators.
 
Begging the question but FWIW, USPAP discourse on the wisdom of using pending sales--because they would have been revealed by due diligence on the effective date--does not address the outcome of the properties under contract on the effective date, because the outcome--good, bad, or indifferent--would not have been known. A rationale opinion could not possible approve of the use of pending sales--not ONE PENDING SALE THAT CONTRACTICTS THE ENTIRETY OF THE MARKET--in a retrospective assignment but not in a contemporaneous assignment.

Interesting question but without anything more specific the generic applies...

Is this a real world example or a theoretical query? Is it specifically about a retrospective appraisal, or a current as of effective date appraisal , typically with a signature date a very short time after inspection? Having months or years of market perspective after the fact could result in a different market analysis.

How does one pending sale contradict the entirety of the market...?

Is it a pending sale of a property very similar to subject....If a pending sale (imo) has a price and or terms substantially contrary to the market, I would analyze it and comment in narrative but might not put it on the grid. If a pending sale with substantially different price or terms is due to a drastic change in the market, that would need a different analysis.
 
The Good Book says that "When a sales comparison approach is necessary for credible assignment results, an appraiser must analyze such comparable sales data as are available to indicate a value conclusion." So does it mention listings? Pendings? Or, do we assume that "sales data" includes listings and pendings... Inquiring minds want to know. Std 1-5 says we have to analyze info about the subject, but that isn't listing and pendings.

Listings and Pendings are "future" sales if they sell. As of the date of appraisal, they are a future event, and if the date of appraisal is a lead cinch cutoff...????

If comfortable with the sales I doubt I would jack up the value just because of a pending (Our MLS does not report pending PRICES and Realtors rarely disclose that to appraisers here) So?? Catch 22. Is it or is it not "sales" data? Donno, you be the judge. Frankly I doubt it is USPAP violating but might not be kosher with Fannie and FHA.

I put this in every report:

"I have considered active listings & pending sales in the performance of this appraisal."
"And any trend indicated by that data is supported by the listing/offering information included in this report"'

That simply means that it is used to note a trend, if any. It does not have the same weight as closed sales.
 
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