Pamela Crowley (Florida)
Elite Member
- Joined
- Jan 13, 2002
- Professional Status
- Retired Appraiser
- State
- Florida
Received order for a purchase in a slum area attempting gentrification. Purchaser is in AZ, said he's going to move back to Jacksonville; contract is on a single page over-the-counter contract. Lender is a big national name - the B-C end of the company. Received a check from the buyer already by mail.
Buyer scheduled inspection for me. 1st red flag is when he tells me he hopes I appraise it as high as possible. Hmmmmm
I go and do the inspection. Subject is one of the few old single story buildings in the area and the majority of it was added on quite a few years ago. Boarded up huge 2 family across the street, a couple of 2 and 3 story victorians that have been fixed up, most are still a major eyesore. (haven't found a single story comp yet) Major structural problems in the floor under the bathroom. I'm thinking the woman that lives there and let me in is the owner/seller until she tells me she plans on fixing the bathroom floor sometime in the next few months.
I start asking questions and find out she's renting this house and has been renting it for at least a couple of years, pays #372/month, month to month, with no plans on moving out. I ask who she pays the rent to and she tells me the name of her landlord - which is the name of the buyer.
I call the lender after I get back to my car and tell them what I've found out. The buyer calls me again to 'secretly' tell me that he's planning on moving back here to move in with the tenant who he had a previous relationship with, but he doesn't see any reason to tell this to the lender since it's none of their business. I explain to him that a tenant occupied property where the tenant has no plans to move makes a difference on how I must legally do the appraisal. He's not happy about that.
I explain the situation to the LO and we decide that I will do the appraisal without the income approach but that I will disclose what I have learned and let the underwriter decide what they want. She thinks this is just fine as the buyer qualifies with enough down to do it as an investment purchase if necessary.
Now.... (10 minutes after our discussion) the LO called and wants to cancel the order, will I please refund a portion of the fee that was already paid. Said she's going to drop the deal. I don't believe her and I don't believe the buyer. What I believe is going on now is that another less astute appraiser will be hired to get this past underwriting without disclosing the tenant occupancy. This feels very strongly like some type of investor scam.
Do I do nothing and just let it go including refunding a portion of the fee? Do I ask to speak with a supervisor and explain this situation?
Need some good advise here. My instincts have been screaming from the beginning of this, but ...... ????
Buyer scheduled inspection for me. 1st red flag is when he tells me he hopes I appraise it as high as possible. Hmmmmm
I go and do the inspection. Subject is one of the few old single story buildings in the area and the majority of it was added on quite a few years ago. Boarded up huge 2 family across the street, a couple of 2 and 3 story victorians that have been fixed up, most are still a major eyesore. (haven't found a single story comp yet) Major structural problems in the floor under the bathroom. I'm thinking the woman that lives there and let me in is the owner/seller until she tells me she plans on fixing the bathroom floor sometime in the next few months.
I start asking questions and find out she's renting this house and has been renting it for at least a couple of years, pays #372/month, month to month, with no plans on moving out. I ask who she pays the rent to and she tells me the name of her landlord - which is the name of the buyer.
I call the lender after I get back to my car and tell them what I've found out. The buyer calls me again to 'secretly' tell me that he's planning on moving back here to move in with the tenant who he had a previous relationship with, but he doesn't see any reason to tell this to the lender since it's none of their business. I explain to him that a tenant occupied property where the tenant has no plans to move makes a difference on how I must legally do the appraisal. He's not happy about that.
I explain the situation to the LO and we decide that I will do the appraisal without the income approach but that I will disclose what I have learned and let the underwriter decide what they want. She thinks this is just fine as the buyer qualifies with enough down to do it as an investment purchase if necessary.
Now.... (10 minutes after our discussion) the LO called and wants to cancel the order, will I please refund a portion of the fee that was already paid. Said she's going to drop the deal. I don't believe her and I don't believe the buyer. What I believe is going on now is that another less astute appraiser will be hired to get this past underwriting without disclosing the tenant occupancy. This feels very strongly like some type of investor scam.
Do I do nothing and just let it go including refunding a portion of the fee? Do I ask to speak with a supervisor and explain this situation?
Need some good advise here. My instincts have been screaming from the beginning of this, but ...... ????