I completed an appraisal for a refinance for Newrez in October. There are 2 parcels that are contiguous that make up the total property. One parcel is the house and one acre and the second parcel is 13.279 acres with a barn and is considered excess land. It is buildable and has road frontage and it is not part of the appraisal. Only the parcel with the house and one acre was appraised. The lender has made a revision request that the appraisal be made subject to each parcel being on its own deed. I asked why and the CRT Risk Manager, who is an appraiser, said they can't sell it to the GSE's "because they don’t buy property with multiple parcels where the highest and best use is no." I called Fannie Mae and was told to submit a question form, which I did today. I've asked 3 experienced appraisers in my area as well as a loan officer at the local bank. All four said they have not heard of this stipulation. The loan officer stated that he has made loans like this without the parcels being deeded separately. Has anyone run into this? Is she correct? Do they have to be deeded separately? I'm not trying to be difficult but I want the appraisal to be accurate. If I should revise it, based on Fannie Mae guidelines, I will. If I shouldn't, I would like to be able to tell the lender why. I'm sorry to ramble. Thank you all for your time.